Several studies show the expression of SERCA and phospholamban at message levels. I have seen also that they have used the ratio of those genes. Could you help me to find the reason for it, please?
in an ideal world, if there would be a direct relationship between mRNA and protein levels, this ratio could provide an indirect indication of the strength of phospholamban-mediated SERCA2a inhibition. Of course, this is a fairly crude assumption, particularly at the mRNA level, since this relationship is far from linear. However, even at the protein level this ratio is not that reliable, since it ignores the complex regulation of PLB and SERCA2a interactions, including pentamerization and phosphorylation. Immunoprecipitation assays have been performed in a few studies and might provide a more direct assessment.