We produced mAbs at my lab (classical 1975 hybridoma tech). One of my clones produced one mAb that was promising. When we constructed it, we used subtractive immunization, which consists of immunizing the mice with a non-tumoral cell line, then giving them a chemotherapy agent following 24h and 48h in order to eliminate proliferating B cells (triggered by exposition to non-tumoral cells). Then, we perform, at the same mouse, a series of immunizations with tumoral cells (same tissue-line cell). After purification we did the SDS page gel with the purified mAb as the sample. Strong IgG bands were easily spotted (150kda, 55kda and 22 kda). This mAb, when used in blotting, diluted at 1:1000 gave us the attached figure. First lane is a non-tumoral cell lysate (RWPE-1), second lane is the tumoral cell lysate PC3 (used as immunogen to produce the mAb) and third lane is another tomoral cell lysate, LNCAP. Here is how I am interpreting it: i) at the first lane, as expected, there is only low non-specific binding. At the other lanes, we have a more strong band (which I suppose is the protein my mAb recognize) but also a lot of other bands. I was expecting to see only one band, because my mAb is trully monoclonal. What am I missing here? Am I interpreting this correctly? Are these bands only a result of poor standardization of my blott? Should I do another blott, with both the primary and secondary antibodies more diluted? Thanks a lot!