Mackie’s moral “error theory” seems committed to a view of objectivity that takes ‘objective’ as coeval with ‘intelligible apart from human sensibility’. That's certainly one way of cashing out 'objective'. But isn’t McDowell’s description of objectivity as “there to be experienced” (i.e., regardless of whether the experience is actually instantiated by any given agent) at least equally coherent? If not, why? And are there still other ways to cash out the notion of objectivity in moral judgment (perhaps in the case of evolutionary utility to sentient beings, such as we are)?

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