While validating the mode of action of a novel anti-cancer compound, we have options of using small interference RNA or pharmacological inhibitors of a particular signaling molecule.
In several papers we usually found that in the presence of a pharmacological inhibitor of a signaling component (e.g. MEK1/2), the observed biological activity of test compound is almost null, which validates that the test compound is down regulating that particular signaling pathway leading to its anti-cancer activity. Thats convincing to me..
But, there are also papers which reports that in the presence of a pharmacological inhibitor of a signaling component (e.g. MEK1/2), the observed biological activity of test compound is elevated. And, in those papers also the authors claim that the mode of action of test compound is through that signaling pathway. Is it true?