Since both alleles of the same gene are getting edited in Bi-allelic mutants of any particular organism, Can we consider that organism as a homozygous mutant for the gene?
If the mutations are the same in both alleles, that organism would be homozygous. However, calling a gene with different mutations in each allele a homozygous mutant is imprecise. It would be better to indicate the individual mutations for each allele.