02 February 2019 1 2K Report

Dear Readers:

May I ask a silly question regarding metric invariance. Some textbook authors claimed that when metric invariance holds, the comparison across groups of the unstandardized regression coefficients is allowed.

I am confused with this logical statement. Because when metric invariance holds(meaning that the unstandardized regression coefficients are equal between groups), there is no need to continue to do a between-group comparison of the unstandardized regression coefficients. What do you think about this statement? It seems contradictory?

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