07 April 2023 6 6K Report

G'day,

I'm studying AN INTRODUCTION TO COMPUTATIONAL FLUID MECHANICS BY EXAMPLE and I'm confused about the way author calculated the total forces on a free falling sphere in the air (no wind).

On the right-hand side of the equation (1.2.2), the 3rd term is drag which is contributed by pressure and shear stress on the sphere's surface. The 2nd term is buoyancy, i.e. (-m_f)g, and this is what I can't understand. Since when the sphere is falling, the pressure gradient around it is no longer equal to (ρ_f)g, then why is using Archimedes' principle valid?

By contrast, my calculation simply separates total forces into 3 parts: gravity, pressure force and shear stress force. It's more obvious that the resultant force of the last two terms equals drag which should equals the 3rd term of the author's equation. Thus, I think the buoyancy term is redundant. But I learn these stuff by myself so I'm not sure.

Hope someone can explain it, thank you very much.

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