SeqTar users: is it right to calculate the probability of the valid peak using the binomial probability density function as they tell in the paper (http://nar.oxfordjournals.org/content/early/2011/12/02/nar.gkr1092.full)?

Considering that the binomial PDF for a certain value returns the probability to get a peak *exactly the same height* of the one under analysis, it seems to me that the right thing to do would be instead to calculate 1- (the binomial cumulative distribution for height of the peak under analysis-1).

This would give the probability of getting a peak *the same height of the valid peak OR MORE* given the trials and the probability, as before. Indeed using the probability density function might create problems: if a gene is heavily covered by PARE reads and the valid peak has much less reads than expected, the probability might be very low while the peak is not outstanding with respect to the surrounding nucleotides.

Using the cumulative probability, the probability of getting higher peaks would approach one, as expected. Is it right?

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