I know that we can categorize a specific linguistic change as either gramaticalization or subjectification (or both involved), but can we also say that specific linguistic change is motivated by grammaticalization / subjectification?
Thank you for your insightful explanation, Petra!
Your metaphor beautifully illustrates the intricate role of grammaticalization within language. Comparing language to a living body, with grammar as the skeleton and grammaticalization as the tendons and cartilage, really helped clarify the concept for me.
I'm also curious about subjectification. Would you say that subjectification primarily serves as a mechanism that describes how expressions become more subjective, or would it be more accurate to (or can we even) consider it a motivation driving language to evolve towards expressing more personal attitudes and perspectives? How do you see these processes interacting in the broader landscape of linguistic change?
Hi Petra,
Thank you so much for your thoughtful and insightful response. Your explanation about the cultural and linguistic differences in subjectification is enlightening. I appreciate you taking the time to share such detailed examples and hypotheses from ancient languages and their influences.
Your perspective on how different cultures influence linguistic constructs is incredibly insightful. It's intriguing to consider how the use of suffix-pronouns in Eastern languages might reflect deeper cultural values and how this contrasts with Western linguistic tendencies. Your hypothesis on the algorithmic and logical development of different speech rules due to cultural values is particularly thought-provoking.
Additionally, your point about the homogenization of languages through technological and human movement is something I will definitely ponder further.
Thank you again for your detailed and engaging response.
Warm regards,
Chris
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