Considering Argentina as a Latin America country with low economic inequality and with reducing Gini coefficient values, at least since 2002 until the present (*), can one affirm that a similar pattern of reduction of unequal access to health services could have happened in recent years in terms of increased health care coverage for the population?
(*): Source: Gasparini and Lustig. "The rise and fall of income inequality in Latin America"; pp.14; August 2011 (available at http://www.ecineq.org/milano/WP/ECINEQ2011-213.pdf)
I would submit that (improvements in) income inequality is sufficient but not necessary for (improved) access to health services. Having said that, (improvements in) income inequality most certainly helps in improving the health status of the population given the determinants of health.
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