Dear all,
I have struggled to interpret a meta-analysis article. Authors mentioned that weighed mean difference was used for efficacy evaluation but forest plot was shown by using odds ratio. I think it is not make-sense.
Also, data of publication bias were described using the Harbord-Egger test. The authors mentioned "92.5% CI" not "95% CI". Why 92.5% CI?
Additionally, the authors tried to examine the efficacy of two drugs using "indirect method". I think that this method needs to evaluate with statistics, but no mentioned in the article.
Is this a discarded article? What do you guys think?
Naoto