Since there are examples of drugs with high bioavailability but differing pharmacokinetics, it is interesting to explore whether if bioavailability has any effect on plasma half-life of a drug. Can anyone elaborate on this issue?
In my understanding, t1/2 is the time required for the plasma concentration to be reduced by half irrespective of the bio-availability. Rather the extent to which the drug is metabolized in the liver, kidney, plasma or other tissues, extent of plasma protein binding, tissue sequestration and the physico-chemical property of the drug it self play very important role in determining plasma/biological half life of a drug.