03 March 2017 3 8K Report

Variables A and B are shown to have a weak to modest correlation (r = .31, r2 = .096). Suppose I have good reason to believe that the correlation is negatively  affected by heteroscedasticity, knowing from previous research that those with high levels of A tend to have high levels of B, but (described here in a visual sense) the rest of the distribution opens up like a funnel as one goes down the A and B axes, though those with low levels of A also tend to have low levels of B, but the effect is not as apparent. As a result, I do a t-test to compare the highest quartile of A with the lowest quartile of A with B as my IV. The effect size correlation (biseriel r = .69, r2 = .476). Knowing that they are two different correlation coefficients, Could I compare these two coefficients of determination, or is that statistical apples to oranges?

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