Dear Esteemed Researchers,
In assays evaluating antioxidant activity, is it plausible for a test compound to exhibit a lower IC50 value than the positive control, even when the positive control demonstrates a higher percentage of DPPH radical scavenging activity? Specifically, how can a compound with a lower overall inhibition rate at higher concentrations (as indicated by lower percentage inhibition) still possess a lower IC50 value, suggesting higher potency? What are the underlying mechanisms and potential factors contributing to this phenomenon?
A test compound can have a lower IC50 than a positive control despite lower overall DPPH scavenging activity due to differences in dose-response curves and affinity. This discrepancy highlights that IC50 measures potency at a specific point, not overall effectiveness across all concentrations.
Yes. It is possible. I think this depends on the mathematical model used in IC50 calculations
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