Hello,

I have a kind of productivity measure that was plotted for American and Japanese companies through the seven years.  This plot shows the American companies have slightly higher value, less productive, than Japanese. However, I estimate this measure based on 10 different independent variables, that were statistically significant, in which ownership is one of those, ownership could be American or Japanese companies. It was found that the related coefficient for this categorical variable in the statistical model (it’s a combination of regularized method and robust regression) is showing an opposition result, indicating American companies are more productive (the coefficient value is 1.213, meaning that on average this measure is higher for Japanese by 1.213). Any thought and insight concerning to this contradiction would be appreciated. Thank you.

More Amir Abolhassani's questions See All
Similar questions and discussions