I have compared my data published in J Appl Physiol 108:1440-1446, 2010 with results showed by Elizabeth T Thomas et al. in BMJ Open 2019;9:e028150. doi:10.1136/bmjopen-2018-028150. Could anybody explain why the rate of FEV1 decline with ageing analyzed in longitudinal studies is twice higher that the rate of FEV1 decline with age analyzed in my cross-section study (where ‘age’ means both ageing and differences between generations). The only explanation that I might propose is that older generations have/had better lung functions, and thus their FEV1 decline with ageing is partly compensated by better starting lung functions. In consequence, we observe seemingly lower decline with ageing in cross-sectional studies. This seems, however, to be an odd explanation since, at least in my opinion (e.g., see my last article ‘Spirometry: A Need for Periodic Updates of National Reference Values’ in Advs Exp. Medicine, Biology), better living conditions during maturation should mean better starting lung functions. That my study is not correct or the Polish population is ‘strange’ might be another explanation; however data for the Swedish population presented 7 year later by Jonas Brisman et al. in Clin Physiol Funct Imaging. 2017 Nov;37(6):640-645. doi: 10.1111/cpf.12349 are very similar. Thus, could anybody explain this paradox?