Hi all

May I ask rather a simple question,

Why are we using pip taz/ ceftazidime and cefipime for infections (even serious infection) in Pseudomonas which is an AmpC producer provided that the MIC in vitro are below susceptible point/mark?

But when comes to say another AmpC like enterobacter, we naturally select carbapenems even when its tested sensitive for cefta/cefipime/pip taz

And this is backed up by the literature too:

Like this:

"The risk of selection for resistant isolates appears to be lower, but still present, with extended-spectrum penicillins such as piperacillin and tazobactam. Data from a limited number of patients suggest cefepime may have a low risk of selecting AmpC-hyperproducing isolates, as might be expected by its greater stability to AmpC (and supported by some in vitro data).33 Thus, piperacillin-tazobactam and especially cefepime appear to convey a lower risk and should be considered for less serious infections (e.g., urinary tract infections) or for severe infections in clinically stable patients with careful monitoring"

(J Pediatr Pharmacol Ther 2011 Vol. 16 No. 1)

Is this because of more (robust) data for PA and not for other AmpC?

Thanks

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