I am running in vitro experiments using 'healthy donor blood'. It appears that clots formed from some samples do not respond to treatment with Alteplase. Any ideas, please, friends and colleagues?
There are many factors that differ in each patient.
For example, the nature of the clot. As far as I know, there are no good data of pathological report from the alteplase failure patients. Alteplase works with "blood clot" but not another type for instance tumour emboli.
I actually used blood samples from 3-4 donors to form blood clots in vitro, then subjected them to lysis using Alteplase. Some of the donors subsequently did not respond. Someone mentioned to me a while back that, around 30% of patients do not respond to this particular thromobolytic therapy. I'm trying to find an explanation that correlates more with this context.
Appreciate your reply, thrombi due to hypercoagulative state because of an underlying tumour is also an interesting digression.
Sorry I didn't read your first question. I thought in vivo situations.
I guess clot size may play a role in vitro. In your sitting surface area might be the key. In large clot, alteplase might not diffuse trough out the clot.
Good work, colleague and I think it will have a great impact on guidelines of IV thrombolysis.
To my mind , many factors interfere with IVT response beyond the time window and length of the thrombus.
They also include the nature of the thrombus as not all of them are formed of fibrin e.g. the white thrombus may contain tough tissue which may be detached from mitral valves