So, I am reading a paper and I seem to be confused. In this paper they did a ChIP assay to observe the promoter region of p21 to determine if there was an interaction with p53. They claim their results prove a dependency of p53 on p21 expression. While this is not unheard of and I don't doubt the accuracy of this statement, I am a bit perplexed at some of the language used to describe this interaction and the explanation of the experiment used. From my understanding of ChIP, you use specific primers to target the promoter region of interest, then to determine the interaction that region may have with other genes or transcription factors you use a specific antibody. The output of data should tell you the level of expression of that particular antibody correct?

So they looked at the p21 promoter using specified primers then probed with the p53 antibody. In their description of results for the ChIP assay, they say they found increases in p21 expression as a result of p53. In the previous section they do report increases in p21 mRNA expression which makes me think it's a matter of semantics or I am understanding the experiment wrong. If the antibody was specific to p53, would they not have found increases in p53 expression at the promoter of p21 thereby showing a relationship with the two and possibly a dependency?

They do show increases in p53 protein expression along side p21 which supports their line of thinking, and I think it makes sense to associate elevated levels of p21 with elevated levels of p53 (wt) since p53 is interacting with p21 at its promoter. Elevated levels of p53 at the p21 promoter would make sense, and would not change the conclusions of this particular study.

I'm simply wanting to ensure I understand how the experiment works.

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