Recent outbreaks of diseases, including measles, have been blamed largely on changes in vaccine coverage due to the antivax movement. In many ways, this claim seems reasonable. But "seems reasonable" is not scientific. In order to assign a causative relationship, we need robust science.
The simplest way to analyze changes in vaccine coverage is to see if there's a simple change in the overall vaccination rate. As I mentioned in another question, there isn't, at least for measles vaccines in the US: https://www.researchgate.net/post/Is_the_medical_community_justified_in_assigning_blame_to_the_anti-vax_movement_wrt_measles_et_al
But this doesn't mean that coverage hasn't changed. The distribution of coverage may be different. How could we evaluate the claim that this kind of change has occurred? In terms of data, we could convert county wide data into vertices on a graph, where edges represent geographic adjacency. If there was absolutely no change, these two graphs would be homomorphic. But what would be a good method for measuring how dissimilar the graph is now to what it was in the past, in a way that would inform this question?