I use PISA data of 28 countries. I’m interested in a cross-level interaction effect using Mplus. The question is: Does a country level variable (DI = measure of school segregation) moderate the effect of SES on achievement?
First I use a 2level model (I = students, c = countries):
Level 1
Yic = boc + b1c(SESic – SEScountry_mean) + eic
Level 2
boc = gamma00 + gamma01(DI) + r0c
b1c = gamma10 + gamma11(DI) + r1c
gamma11 is significant and positive, indicating that in countries with a high school segregation the association between SES and achievement is stronger than in other countries. à This is also what I expected.
Second I switch to a 3level model (I = stundets, j = schools, c = countries,
Level 1
Yijc = b0jc + b1jc(SESijc – SESschool_mean) + eijc
Level 2
b0jc = gamma00c + r0jc
b1jc = gamma10c + r1jc
Level 3
gamma00c = gamma000 + gamma001(DI) + u00c
gamma10c = gamma100 + gamma101(DI) + u10c
gamma101 is significant and negative, indicating that in countries with a high school segregation the association between SES and achievement is less pronounced than in other countries.
These different results somewhat confuse me. I tried different estimation methods (Bayes, ML, …), centering methods (country mean vs. school mean for the 3level model) and weighting approaches (unweighted data, only final student weights, final student weights and final school weights, all provided within the PISA data set), the results are stable.
Intuitively I thought that the L2- and L3-model should yield similar results and that the sign switch has to be an artefact. But now I think the results might be meaningful.
Now to my question: Is the following line of argumentation correct, or am I wrong?
When I estimate the 2level model (Students, countries) the random slope contains both individual and compositional effects, because school level effects are not controlled for.
When I estimate the 3level model (Students, schools, countries) the L2-slope variance captures the slope differences which are due to school differences (e.g. differences in SES-composition) and L3-slope variance is due to country differences. Thus, the 2level-slope “contains compositional effects”, the 3level-slope does not.
The interpretation of the L3-cross level interaction thus is: the more segregated a country is, the smaller is the effect of SES on achievement within schools. In segregated countries there is less within school SES-variation, what promotes small within school SES-effects.
Now it follows that the difference between the 2level and 3level results is the different consideration of the SES-school-compositional effects.
Consequently, I run a model, where I estimate a cross level –interaction with DI and the SES-school composition. This effect is positive: The higher the segregation in a country, the stronger are the compositional effects.
Thus I conclude: High segregation in an educational system leads
(A) to a smaller SES effect on achievement within schools – what is due to the smaller within school SES variation.
(B) to stronger compositional effects, what finally induces more inequality in segregated systems
Is this line of argumentation tenable?
Any comments are welcome!
Christoph