Although one sperm is adequate for fertility, according to reports, men with sperm concentration lower than 20 million cells/mL (or less than 50 million cell/ejaculation) are more likely to infertility.

Is increased risk of infertility in oligospermia only related to low sperm count?

If the semen sample of fertile men diluted to reach the concentration less than 20 million cell/ml, fertility rate is reduced to the infertile men level?

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