I am dealing with the proof of classical CLT as is presented in:

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Central_limit_theorem

last updated: 11 April 2013 at 16:37.

The crucial argument at that proof is that:

"for any random variable, Y, with zero mean and a unit variance (var(Y) = 1), the characteristic function of Y is, by Taylor's theorem,

\phi_{Y}\left(t\right)=1-\frac{t^2}{2}+o\left(t^2\right) "

or

phi[Y](t)=1-1/2*t^2+o(t^2)

But we know that for some distributions higher moments do not exist.

So, why do we accept the above Taylor series expansion as valid?

Recall that if you take the random variable:

X ~ Logistic(0,sqrt(3)/pi)

you can also have an almost identical distribution to N(0,1) as you can see from the plots of CDFs.

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