I am undertaking a meta-analysis of cognitive impairment in opiate addiction as shown by neuropshychological testing. I am looking for clarification as to which model of meta-regression is the most appropriate - random or fixed effects? Alternatively, I have done some reading about bayesian meta-analysis methods, and would be very grateful to hear from anyone with expertise in this.
Most domains in my meta-analysis show high between study heterogeneity (I2 greater than 75). Given the importance of using the same model of meta-regression for all domains within a meta-analysis, and the consideration of heterogeneity, I think that a random effects model of meta-regression would be most appropriate.
However, I would be very grateful for any advice.
Thank you.