Hi there, essentially, I have collected data for my study that includes injury frequency of particular injuries i.e., Sprained ankle x 5. I also have the experience of each individual i.e., they have played for 5 years. Due to the varying years played, in order to standardise the data to make it comparable i divided injury frequency by the total amount of years each person has played e.g. 5 injuries across 5 years would result in a standardised frequency of 1.

My question resides in, when I want to look at the effect of experience on my standardised injury frequency, does the fact that I have used experience as my standardising factor affect the results published. The only reason I ask is due to my results of a Multiple linear regression (there are other variables) showing that experience has a significant negative effect, which logically shouldn't happen as the more exposure you have, the increased probability of sustaining an injury would increase.

Thanks in advance

George

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