I am still learning a lot about nonlinear regression and I have some questions about residual normality and Homoscedasticity:
1) From what I could find here (https://stats.stackexchange.com/questions/146542/consequences-of-violating-assumptions-of-nonlinear-regression-when-comparing-mod) One user states that normality of residuals is not a necessary assumption for nonlinear regression, is this correct and, if so, can you explain why and provide some literature on it?
2) I have been using graphpad prism as my statistcs tool and it has multiple possible tests for residual normality (D'Agostino-Pearson, Shapiro-Wilk, Anderson Darling). For some of my datasets, different tests give different results (one tests says residuals are normally distributed while the other says no). Prism reccomends D'Agostino-Pearson. Are you on board with this recomendation and could you try and explain to me (a non-mathematician) why the different tests would wield different results?
3) Does non-normality of residuals mean the model selected for nonlinear regression is incorrect?
4) Similarly to above, is Homoscedasticity essential for a a good nonlinear fit? If there is no Homoscedasticity does that mean the chosen model is incorrect and a diffent one should be used?
5) At the moment, in my correlations, I have a couple of replicates for some values of X. Does this affect the Homoscedasticity and/or normality of residuals calculation in a way that I need to account for?
To add a bit more information about this, because it was apparently not clear. Essentially, I tried fitting my data using multiple nonlinear models (polynomial, power, exponential, etc...) and used the AICc to determine the best fit model. However, I am trying to understand if the model with the lowest AICc is, in fact a good model, and I was wondering if failure to comply with non-normality of residuals and/or Homoscedasticity would disqualify the chosen model
I am sure there will be more questions, but for now, I really appreciate the help.