We all known that Posterior staphylomas are more commonly congenital (at birth) or as a manifestation of more extreme myopia (nearsightedness). The congenital staphylomas occur near the optic disc which is commonly of normal size, but frequently the vision is substantially lowered in these cases (cited from: https://www.aao.org/eye-health/ask-ophthalmologist-q/staphyloma).
Recently, we met a patient (75 years old) with axial length 20 mm (IOLMaster), internal ACD 2.11 mm, BCVA 20/50 with +7.5DS. B Ultrasound showed this patient had Posterior staphyloma.
We confused the reason for Posterior staphyloma for this patient.
Also, we cannot find the related paper about it.
Is it possible? What's the reason for it?
Thank you for your answer. Is there any papers related to this condition? This patient has no history of glaucoma and rheumatism.
Perhaps you have observed an extreme case of eccentric posterior staphyloma on the hyperopic eye. Fovea may not coincide with the apex of the staphyloma, it may lead to difficulties in lens calculating, as described here: https://www.reviewofophthalmology.com/article/nipping-refractive-surprises-in-the-bud
Possible reason could be a previous attack of posterior scleritis, if Your patient have a history of rheumatism or other systemic autoimmune disease, as noted in the previous answer.
https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pmc/articles/PMC5311008/
Posterior congenital staphylomas on hyperopic eyes are not common, except in those patients with superadded weakening scleral conditions as autoimmune diseases.
It is important to identified the exact location of thepostrior staphyloma for the IOL calculation.
I think that posterior scleromalakia is a possible reason for this finding
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