I noticed in a particular result, the higher the concentration, the percentage inhibition was equally going higher.
But there is an issue, when the IC50 was calculated using Linear regression, the IC50 gets lower as the concentration decreases.
Some theories had said that the higher the percentage inhibition, the lower the IC50 but it is the other way round.
I need some explanations.
Hi,
From Wikipedia:
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/IC50#:~:text=IC50%20values%20can%20be%20used%20to%20compare%20the%20potency,increases%20as%20agonist%20concentration%20increases.
"The IC50 is the concentration of an inhibitor where the response (or binding) is reduced by half.IC50 value increases as agonist concentration increases.".
Conversely, IC50 decreases as agonist concentration decreases.
Here is a reference:
Gubler H, Schopfer U, Jacoby E. Theoretical and experimental relationships between percent inhibition and IC50 data observed in high-throughput screening. J Biomol Screen. 2013 Jan;18(1):1-13. doi: 10.1177/1087057112455219
There is no data and I don't know the specific situation, so I can't explain it.
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