Can sesearchers measure the purchase intention and purchase behavior simultaneously?
Based on the TPB, intention and behavior are measured in the different time period to predict the intention’ influencing power ( present) on the future behavior (future) . In which, future behavior is considered as the potential dependent variable, whereas, past behavior is viewed as the control variable to the intention and perceived behavioral control.
In addition to that, Ajzen, 2014 documented some facts
“ Although incorporating automatic processes, the theory of planned behavior generally assumes reasoned processes underlying attitudes and actions. In contrast, strong and unmediated links between prior and later behavior imply habituation in a process that bypasses intentions.”
Due to that, scenario,
Can we use the purchase behavior ( Present Behavior) as the potential dependent variable, which is determined by purchase attitude, subjective norm and perceived behavioral control without having purchase intention as the mediator ?
Or
Can Researcher(s) measure the purchase intention and purchase behavior simultaneously?
The reason they use intention is that often they don't have actual behavior, so it is a proxy for actual behavior. Of course what is of most importance is the actual behavior, so one can easily omit intention from the equation to see if the TPB antecedents can explain the observed behavior. Intention and behavior are only somewhat positively correlated, and this correlation diminishes as the time gap increases.
Why one would want to measure intention and behavior simultaneously is unclear.
Thank you for your valuable contribution.
You have raised the question that,
“Why one would want to measure intention and behavior simultaneously is unclear”
Yes, researcher(s) want to measure the intention and behavior at the point (same time). It means that, whether present purchase behavior ( Actual behavior ) is associated with intention which might be well positively associated with the direct antecedents of purchase intention.
If both intention and behavior is measured simultaneously, researcher(s) will easily find the gap, which might give the reality at the point of time. If the gap is found excessively, researcher(s) can able to ground the new strategies to bridge the gap between intention and behavior via deep qualitative study approach.
In contrast, TPB doesn’t allow the researcher(s) to measure the intention and behavior simultaneously. Theory only focalize the future behavior, which might be derived from intention directly.
TPB suggests that there should be time gap between measurement of purchase intention and purchase behaviour and this time gap changes according to the type of product .. say if you are studying intention and behaviour of fast moving consumer product .. the time gap can be very less . Same logic applies for slow moving high value products wherein time gap can be high .
I dont think so.these are two different stages of purchase process.They will have a time gap.We can meaure purchase intention right now but behaviour only when we go back to the sample and ask him again if he purchased the same or not
If you want to use TPB in a cross-sectional study then you have to assess same time and no other options in that case and just mention it in limitations. It's better to use cohort study for more rational to use TPB. You can avoid all these by doing qualitative study or mixed method approach.
Another thing forgot to share, it will be better to use path analysis or SEM for TPB if it's quantitative study otherwise it will be difficult to establish linkages.
"Can we use the purchase behavior ( Present Behavior) as the potential dependent variable, which is determined by purchase attitude, subjective norm and perceived behavioral control without having purchase intention as the mediator ?"
For your first question, I can't remember where I read but there indeed exists an article saying that without behavioural intention, the R square of the actual behaviour will be surprisingly low. Thus, behavioural intention is a vital mediator between those factors you mentioned.
"Can Researcher(s) measure the purchase intention and purchase behavior simultaneously?"
Regarding this question, simultaneous measurement of behavioural intention and actual behaviour is illogical, because they are two temporally separate things. Besides, even if there is a way to measure them at the same time, common method variance would be a worrisome problem, which is also an another story.
According to Zikmund et al., (2010) it can be done. Can researchers measure intention to use e-learning and behavior to use e-learning simultaneously?What do you think?