Hello,

I am struggling with some questions. I would like to know if it is possible to use before-after trials and randomized controlled trials in the same meta-analysis? Someone recommended me to separate the effect in between and within, is that correct?

And how could I deal with different kinds of outcomes? sometimes I have means and SD, but sometimes I just have percentages : before 5% of the people did this and after intervention 80%? Is there a way to convert percentages in another kind of measure? (odd ratios but just in one-arm interventions ?)

More Claudia Teran-Escobar's questions See All
Similar questions and discussions