I have conducted an fMRI study comparing recovered anorexia nervosa patients to healthy controls on an emotional stroop task. The task consists of fearful and happy faces, overlaid with either the word 'fear' or 'happy'. Thus, a given trial can either be congruent (face and word match) or incongruent (face and word mismatch). The task was to designate if the face was happy or fearful, ignoring the word. Reaction time data showed that it takes longer to respond to incongruent trials compared to congruent trials, which we expected.
However, the fMRI analysis shows that, for the control group, participants had more bilateral amygdala activation during congruent compared to incongruent trials (as shown by the extracted beta weights from left and right amygdala). I expected more amygdala activation for incongruent trials (thinking that an emotional conflict conveys more saliency). I am struggling to understand our observation.
Does anyone have any comments regarding this finding? All comments are highly appreciated!