By WLS we mean weighted least squares regression.  On page 111 in Brewer, KRW (2002), Combined survey sampling inference: Weighing Basu's elephants, Arnold: London and Oxford University Press, he explains that heteroscedasticity naturally occurs because of differences in the population members' sizes.  See https://www.researchgate.net/publication/320853387_Essential_Heteroscedasticity.  Heteroscedasticity is 'a feature, not a bug.'  There are model and/or data considerations which can basically artificially produce heteroscedasticity, which should be addressed: See https://www.researchgate.net/publication/324706010_Nonessential_Heteroscedasticity.  However, you can still expect heteroscedasticity when the sizes of the population members differ, as defined by predicted y. 

I have seen real data which graphically looked as if prediction intervals were identical for each data point - i.e., no spread was apparent - but a residual analysis showed that there really was heteroscedasticity. 

OLS regression may be desired for hypothesis tests, but I think it is becoming more apparent to more researchers that hypothesis tests are often misused.  

OLS regression is a special case of WLS regression, when the coefficient of heteroscedasticity, gamma, is zero.  But as Brewer(2002) explains, gamma=0 is not likely.  See section 3, "Analysis of Brewer’s Explanation for Bounding gamma," in https://www.researchgate.net/publication/320853387_Essential_Heteroscedasticity.

So when would the coefficient of heteroscedasticity, gamma, equal to zero, needed for OLS, be appropriate? 

Why use OLS regression?  I expect that there are other considerations, outside of my experience with official statistics, and especially, I suspect, in applications where y can be negative.  What are those other considerations (if any)? 

Thank you. 

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