03 October 2017 12 7K Report

My understanding is:

1.) via HIV's high mutation rate creating very high antigenic variability (no reply needed for 1.))

2.) via its antigenic inability to provoke and immune response,

a.) why can a vaccine not provoke an immune response in uninfected people?  b.) why can i.). HIV or ii.). a vaccine not provoke an immune response in infected patients?  

Thanks:)

More Joel Subach's questions See All
Similar questions and discussions