I am reading Schmidt and Hunter - Methods of Meta-Analysis 3rd Edition to try and understand the theory behind meta-analysis. In chapter 3 they state the following: "To eliminate the effect of sampling error from a meta-analysis, we must derive the distribution of population correlations from the distribution of observed correlations." It was my understanding previously that we replicate studies time and time again in order to get a better idea of what the population correlation is. It is unclear to me why Schmidt and Hunter refer to population correlations (plural). Does each sample have its own population correlation?