Because of cosine 2pi multiply with any value of k that always get 1?
I need to understand this for Fourier study.
Use Euler's identity: eiπ+1 = 0
We have, eiπ=-1, then (eiπ)2k=(-1)2k = 1, Q.E.D.
P.S. To find more on Euler's identity please follow the thread.
https://www.researchgate.net/post/What_is_the_most_beautiful_theorem_in_mathematics?_tpcectx=profile_highlights
e(j*thetha)=cos(theta)+j*sin(theta), then e(-j*2pi*k)=cos(-2*pi*k)+j*sin(-2*pi*k) = 1+J*0=1
Helpful.... how about x(-j*thetha), that got negative before j thetha
Dear Chong,
Recall that cos(2πk) = 1 and sin(2πk) = 0 for every integer, k. Then,
ei2πk= cos(2πk) + i sin(2πk) = 1, for every integer, k.
Regards.
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