Hello
I have two variables measured: one is a behavioural variable and one a western blot variable of a protein.
They are strongly correlated.
However, only the behavioural variable was altered (decreased) in the experiment, but the western blot protein did not undergo any changes.
How can I go about explaining this? Does this mean the correlation is invalid?
Many thanks
Irina
I think the western blot refer to the quantity of the protein, & this is different from its activity in other word the protein may be there but its environment may not be suitable for its action i.e. it is there but not able perform its action because its action requirements are absent. This I think is behind the your obtained results
Hi Hathama,
Thanks for your answer!
In other words, the two are correlated but some kind of protein activity assay would have been necessary in this case to draw any further conclusions.
It means you have correlation without causation.
Imagine you have a clock. It's correlated with the actual time. But then you intervene and change the clock. There's no effect on time. You broke the correlation. In doing so, you have experimentally revealed that time determines what the clock says, and not the other way round.
This can be a useful scientific conclusion. Try to explain how it might work in your case.
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