I am currently performing a meta-analysis, and I am using the The Restricted Maximum Likelihood ("REML") method to estimate tau2. However for one of my subgroups (33 studies) I have a tau2 of 0, but an I2 of 81%. I realise they are different measure of heterogeneity Tau2 (Distribution of true effect sizes about the mean​) and I2 (proportion of variance that is true (due to differences about effect size)), however I am struggling to understand how none of the heterogeneity can be accounted to true differences - what mathematically has gone on for this to be true. Hope this makes sense, thank you!

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