12 December 2017 6 5K Report

Example from my analysis:

A and B (main predictors) predicting C (mediator) and C predicting D (outcome variable).

Example 1 : Analysis without bootstrapping:

Direct effects:

A - D = positive, sig.

B - D = negative, non-sig.

Indirect effects:

A - C = positive, sig.

B - C = negative, non-sig.

C - D = negative, sig.

Total indirect:

A - B - D = negative, sig.

A - C - D = non sig.

Example 2: with 1000 bootstraps

Direct effects:

A - D = positive, non-sig.

B - D = negative, non-sig.

Indirect effects:

A - C = positive, non-sig.

B - C = negative, non-sig.

C - D = negative, sig.

Total indirect:

A - B - D = negative, sig. (based on 95% confidence intervals, not on p value).

A - C - D = non sig.

Although in both examples, total indirect effects are congruent, I have serious doubts:

1. Why is it that some paths are significant without and become non-significant with bootstrapping is added? (Estimates [coeffiecients] do not change, but p values do)?

2. In example 1, total indirect effect and partial indirect effects are significant, despite the fact that the direct effect is still significant. Is that not weird? In that case, shoudl not the direct effect be non-significant (A-D)?

In conclusion, what method is superior? Should I just always use bootstaps if the sample is representative?

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