What if the Relative Risk value is zero? Does that indicate there is no association between the risk and the disease?
Do you mean RR=0 or RR=1? If RR = 0 there aren't cases of disease among the exposed to the factor, so the factor can be considered as protective. If RR=1 the incidence among the exposed to the factor is equal to the incidence among the non-exposed, that is, the incidence of the disease in the study population does not change in the presence or absence of the factor; therefore, the factor is not associated with the disease.
Of course. A relative risk smaller than 2 indicates no association between risk and disease.
Ok thanks. Actually I went through quite a few examples of relative risk and in all of them they have given explanation for RR>1 and RR
Do you mean RR=0 or RR=1? If RR = 0 there aren't cases of disease among the exposed to the factor, so the factor can be considered as protective. If RR=1 the incidence among the exposed to the factor is equal to the incidence among the non-exposed, that is, the incidence of the disease in the study population does not change in the presence or absence of the factor; therefore, the factor is not associated with the disease.
you must define the RR, and answer the question whether this is possible
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