Hello everyone,

Right away: This is a question I am struggling with, and it is asked for a PhD program that I want to get into. So maybe I am too stupid and shouldn’t participate since I can’t answer this question. However, I will ask the community anyway since I am always eager to learn more and I want to solve this puzzle. If this is considered cheating in any way, I would like to ask the authorities to delete this post, and I’m sorry. If not, I would like to communicate, especially if I can learn and talk with people that are more experienced than me and I hope that someone can help me and would start a discussion with me.

So here is the question:

I have a protein of interest that has acetyltransferase activity and binds to promoters of actively transcribed genes. The knock-out shows no phenotype in mammalian cells. However “an inhibitor of its catalytic activity caused impaired DNA replication and transcription.”

My task is it to interpret the results and suggest further experiments to validate my hypothesis. Well, I am struggling with the theory already. The main problem that is puzzling me is the fact that I have no phenotype in the knock-out but with a present but catalytically inactive protein. Suggesting, that the protein of interest is not essential (or the right condition for the phenotype to emerge hasn’t been tested yet). However, the inactive form causes some problems.

During the reading, I got stuck with the idea that this protein might be somehow involved in the p53 pathway or alternatively causes problems on the chromatin itself when expressed but inhibited. However, I do not find a lot of information about acetylation besides Histones and N-Terminal regions of newly translated proteins (which are a lot I’m assuming, but I don’t have the time to study all the possible proteins modified by acetyltransferases and their effect).

1) Since one of the prerequisites of p53 function is the acetylation of p53, I thought it might bind to p53 but is unable to modify it and therefore is kind of titrating the p53 away. Therefore, p53 can’t support DNA replication, can’t promote Mdm2 transcription (that also seems to support DNA replication according to a paper I read) and influences also the stress response upon, e.g. DNA damage.

2) Alternatively, the protein with inhibited catalytic activity might bind to Histones but remains stuck which leads to problems, since these proteins will accumulate and block the Histones for “reader” proteins? This, in turn, leads to aberrant transcription since TFs don’t receive the massage to get activated.

BUT, if the hypothesis above were true why does, the knock-out doesn’t show a phenotype. Might the protein just be sufficient by enhancing some processes like transcription by further opening chromatin through acetylation of histones or p53, but is not necessary for these processes since the knock-out obviously doesn’t show a phenotype? Or does this protein might have some moonlighting effect and might bind/regulate some entirely different proteins/pathways? If so, how can I know?

I would really appreciate tips, help or constructive criticism that would help me understand the problem here.

All the best!

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