There are many empirical works showing the distinction between egocentric and allocentric frames of reference (or simply "reference frames") in representing the spatial relations between ourselves and surrounding objects. There is also accumulating evidence showing that we have default or inherent predispositions/proclivities/preferences for one type of reference frame over the other. Nevertheless, at the conceptual or phenomenological level, it is hard to reconcile the parallel computation of visuospatial information based on the use of both reference frames with a default preference for either one. Therefore, can we say that a seemingly valid preference for either reference frame is an epiphenomenon or illusion that was induced by task demands rather than a reflection of some hard-wired, genetically determined spatial behavior?