I am a Master's student in psychology and I have a disagreement with my supervisor. 

I try to argue that in certain circumstances, using regressions on basic values (as described by the Theory of Basic Values by Shalom Schwartz) makes more sense than using correlations. 

My supervisor says that I cannot use a regression if my IV's are patterned. I look at the collinearity indicators and find that they are all very satisfactory (the conventional criteria are tolerance > .1; variance inflation factor < 10). For each of the interrelated values, I have tolerance of about .5-.6, and VIF of around 1.5. Standard errors are also very small in relation to the regression coefficients - as in 20-50 times smaller. 

Is there something I am missing? The theory of basic values says that values are all interrelated in a meaningful way, but the correlations are rather low, with the maximum of about .3, and the average size of correlation of about .15. I do not see why I cannot use a regression on those. 

A useful analogy here can be the personality traits (I guess more people are familiar with Big Five than the theory of basic values). Can you put them all into a regression even though there are correlations between them?

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