I am trying to define CSF1R expressing cell populations in human tissues, and CD68 was recommended as a pan-macrophage marker, but in co-staining studies I have found that CD68+ cells are only a subset of the CSF1R positive population. I have found several publications in literature that both support and contradict this. Any thoughts? 

Thanks!

PS: the vendor has not extensively characterized the CSF1R antibody (peptide antigen), but based on sequence homology does not anticipate any cross-reactivity even with closest homologs.

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