The antipsychotic-induced mania is an interesting phenomenon as antipsychotics are typically used to treat mania. Such induced mania occurs mainly with atypical antipsychotics such as olanzapine and risperidone. What is the exact underlying pharmacodynamic mechanism behind this induction of mania by these atypical antipsychotic compounds? Although there are some suggestions in the papers cited below, besides their D2 and 5HT2A antagonisms, olanzapine possesses a strong 5HT2C antagonism whereas risperidone – a strong alpha-2-adrenergic antagonism and some 5HT2C antagonistic activity as well. Would these two amount to the emergence of mania in when used as a monotherapy? In fact 5HT2C antagonism promotes release of dopamine and noradrenaline whereas alpha-2-adrenergic antagonism promotes release of dopamine, noradrenaline, serotonin and acetylcholine. Why some individuals develop mania/hypomania whereas others do not? Is it possible that 5HT2C antagonism and/or alpha-2-adrenergic antagonism could overcome D2 antagonism in the ventral striatum to induce mania? The fact that the main shared feature of both olanzapine and risperidone is the 5HT2C blockade speaks for its main role in antipsychotic-induced mania. What are your opinions on this particular question?
Olanzapine-induced mania: http://www.tandfonline.com/doi/abs/10.1080/13651500050517911?journalCode=ijpc20
Olanzapine Induced Mania: A Case Report: https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pmc/articles/PMC2951544/
Olanzapine-induced mania in bipolar disorders: https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pmc/articles/PMC161651/
Risperidone-induced mania: An emergent complication of treatment: https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pmc/articles/PMC4231559/