I am struggling in a purely abstract way with the question of the relationship between income distribution and the type of goods produced in an economy. If someone has an idea or a good reference I'd be happy to know about it.
If someone has a particularly high taste for Ferraris and a Ferrari is within their budget constraint then yes it's possible
OK the demand side, but what about the supply? How many Ferraris do you have to hope to sell before you set out to make a factory to make them?
With the current national incomes per capita there would be no demand for Ferraries with perfect equality of income. This is, of course, a theoretical discussion because that kind of society would be totally different from the societies we know. For a disussion of the current economic inequality see e.g. my recent book below.
Book Missing a Decent Living for Everyone: Success and Failure in...
Yes, income distribution has an influence on a variety of goods produced. A poor country will equal income (like China was 20 years ago and Northern Korea today) will produce a lot of bicycles, few cheap cars and no expensive cars (maybe except for few party leaders).
UK before Thatcher's reforms was a rich country with few variation in income (relatively to other capitalist economies) and many people had access to cars, including more expensive.
Income polarization in a country (like Russia since 1990s) causes an increase in a fraction of luxury goods, including Ferrari.
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