Hello there,
I am just trying to decide upon the model doing multigroup analysis.
I ran regression analysis for males and females separately and obtained "similarly looking" coefficients (all sig.). So I wonder if the differences between them are significant or not.
Subsequently, I constrained the coefficient to be the same for both groups.
The change in chi-square between the two models was non-significant. Does this mean that the differences in coefficients are statistically no different from zero ?
Just want to be sure that my understanding is right... thanks for any answer.