Hello there, 

I am just trying to decide upon the model doing multigroup analysis.

I ran regression analysis for males and females separately and obtained "similarly looking" coefficients (all sig.). So I wonder if the differences between them are significant or not.

Subsequently, I constrained the coefficient to be the same for both groups. 

The change in chi-square between the two models was non-significant. Does this mean that the differences in coefficients are statistically no different from zero ?

Just want to be sure that my understanding is right... thanks for any answer.

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