It is a fallacy. For the fact that the simple sugars are 'sweet' does not mean that taking something bitter will 'neutralize' them. The mechanism of producing hypoglycaemia is beyond 'sweet- bitter counter action theory'
NO.
A Hypoglycemic agent would by definition lead to glucose clearance from the blood to below physiological concentrations. The only way this can be done is by increasing circulating concentration of insulin. Insulin is secreted from the beta cells, and its release is triggered by high blood glucose levels and maintained till normoglycemia is reached. Insulin secretion is stopped when blood glucose levels drop. While there is a level to which a plethora of GPCR receptors (among which taste receptors) are involved in fine-tuning the secretion of insulin, they do not lead to insulin secretion when blood glucose is low.
It can be however that certain drugs that target the beta-cell -like glibenclamide- also taste bitter but the taste of the compound is not the main trigger for the insulin secretion. (Many exogenous compounds taste bitter, that is the purpose of the bitter taste, protect us from ingesting weird stuff)
Personal taste perception an mixing of different tastes in meals is common, but this has nothing to do with the biology behind taste, but with the perception as something being good or bad. Taste is influenced by interplay. If you would have a drink that is as sweet as coke, but does not have the same low pH, it would taste ridiculously sweet, to sweet to be nice. If you would have a drink that is as bitter as tonic, without the sugar, you would not be able to drink this because it is so bad. If you would eat ice cream at room temperature, its sweetness would be overwhelming etc,... The way you combine nutrients is personal preference, the body does not crave for sugar after bitterness, but you might enjoy the taste of it.
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