Even where are no particles to support the wave, and wave energy is that which vibrates the particles and moves one particle in relation to another, if particles come into contact, as in water, for instance, we understand how a wave can propagate. This means waves require a medium to propagate, but light wave propagates where no particles exist.
all of you will say that because light is a EM wave thats don't required any medium to travel but i am saying that every particle having its charge or we can say that every particle having its own interaction nature so they having magnetic character and because particle is moving means electric character means overall it is EM in nature so how it effects to the particle to travel in space..
Please suggest the best answer you can. My research has been troubled due to this question.
Dear Prof. Prytz,
Sorry, I had to take off from this discussion. Your explanation of time dilation is still not clear to me. Time can be dilated or contracted if it is a tangible thing with physical attributes and has an ontological existence independent of men. As I have shown in my book, from a philosophical point of view, time and space are abstractions and are have relevance only in the context of matter in motion, and matter is the only thing that is an ontological being. So any manipulation of space or time (bending, dilation etc.) does not make any sense. Minkowski and Einstein’s “spacetime” with tangible physical attribute is a mere mathematical/mental fabrication without any scientific basis and any extrapolation or inference from this abstract entity has no meaning either.
A clock no matter how you fabricate it has to depend on physical/material parts and hence would be affected by surrounding material influences including electromagnetic fields, motion, gravitational force etc. so its rate may change accordingly, but it is impermissible to say that this change in the clock is due to “time” itself (a fictitious and imaginary entity) changing! As I asserted above all the experimental “proofs” claiming “time dilation” are due to confirmation bias and mostly contrived or deliberately conceived. No social/historical practice and experience including GPS has any basis on so-called time dilation, warping of space etc. and hence no scientific validity. Regards, Abdul
Please also see my comments on the role of mathematics in modern physics at: https://www.researchgate.net/post/Is_the_universe_inherently_mathematical_or_is_mathematics_a_construct_of_our_brain_that_is_very_efficient_to_describe_the_universe
Hello Ram,
Maybe you will find interesting this model of self-propelling electromanetic photon that was peer-reviewed and found conform to Maxwell's equations. Published in the Journal of Physical Mathematics:
https://www.omicsonline.com/open-access/on-de-broglies-doubleparticle-photon-hypothesis-2090-0902-1000153.pdf
You say .." wave energy is that which vibrates the particle.." is only valid for sound like mechanical waves, and not electromagnetic waves (EMW). EMW are vibrations of electric and magnetic fields in spacetime.
http://missionscience.nasa.gov/ems/02_anatomy.html
Dear Ram Naresh Yadav,
I think, one should distinguish between theories and branches of knowledge. In my opinion, a theory is a logical or mathematical framework devised so as to avoid contradictions, whereas a branch of knowledge attaches to the phenomena under study explanations, that seem reasonable at the moment of explanation.
Of course, when a theory is proposed for the first time, it tends to agree with the common sense at that time. For instance, when describing electromagnetic propagation in the framework of his theory, Maxwell assumes that there is an ether, indeed. Again, when Einstein launches his special relativity theory, he thinks that no ether is needed, since the field itself is a medium, in a sense. Thus, to answer your question, in Maxwell theory ether is considered to be different from matter, whereas in Einstein theory ether is substituted by a vacuum.
Now, when dealing with transmitting and receiving antennas, one may feel that transmission by electromagnetic induction is more akin to a coupling at an “electrotonic” (=resonance) state than to a propagation. However, right now, the explanation by means of that electromagnetic coupling is not backed by any established theory. In addition, resonance coupling leaps over empty space. Thus, in my opinion, the question would not be so much about propagation as rather about the physical meaning of empty space.
This picture is wrong because:
“Mass does not bend space”
Adrian Ferent
Dear Ram Naresh Yadav,
Every physical constant with physical dimensions *must* represent a real physical property that characterizes the physical event.
Permittivity and permeability form the speed of light, but much more, are properties of materials.
The gravity constant as well does the same: it *must* represent a physical property of material.
When one looks at the transmission of waves, one sees that *every* description of a velocity propagation of a wave (take a wave in a rope, on the surface of water, in the air) is expressed in terms of the square root of the quotient of the internal tension by the mass density. Instead of "tension" one could say: energy. Re-written in another form, this gives E=mc².
Physics must not be regarded through the eyes of a mathematician, who is a quasi-nihilist by definition. Physics must be regarded through the eyes of a Physicist.
Annexed you will find some thoughts about it, including Planck's constant.
All the best!
Article A Stroll around E=mc² and Planck's Constant
Hi Thierry,
you wrote "When one looks at the transmission of waves, one sees that *every* description of a velocity propagation of a wave (take a wave in a rope, on the surface of water, in the air) is expressed in terms of the square root of the quotient of the internal tension by the mass density. Instead of "tension" one could say: energy."
Absolutely true. To my knowledge, this is how Maxwell infered that light could move only at a universally fixed speed (c) in vacuum, a constant since this showed that it can be defined from only two other constants.
Thank you, André.
Another, strong proof of the existence of a medium for the propagation of waves is the following:
When one shakes a rope up and down, a wave starts to run at a velocity defined by the tension in the rope and its mass. How?
Since we move the rope un and down, that impulse cannot be transmitted in a perpendicular (horizontal) direction (since perpendicular vectors are independent), *unless* the vertical and horizontal directions are *physically* connected by the mass and the elasticity of the rope.
Indeed, the slope of the rope in many points next to the one I am shaking, can be broken down in a vertical and a horizontal component. Hence, the horizontal component is able to produce the momentum, hence, the velocity of propagation, thanks to the physical connection of the horizontal and the vertical parts of the medium.
Hence, without a physical medium, a wave propagation cannot occur.
This was probably never understood by Einstein.
As to the question, “How (does?) light can travel in space where no matter exists? I must first of all assert that all phenomena and processes in Nature must have a material basis and the propagation of light cannot be any exception. The hypothetical “aether” and particularly the “new ether” (“spacetime” ) of Minkoski and Einstein, which is the frenzy of modern physics is a purely abstract mathematical construct with no physical or material foundation and hence cannot represent objective reality; that was falsely claimed by Einstein! Please see my RG project: “The Philosophy of Space-Time: Whence Cometh Matter and Motion?”
Neither classical materialism nor mathematical idealism of modern causality based physics is capable of giving an adequately rational explanation of the experimentally observed wave/particle duality and other quantum phenomena in Nature; they both have to take resort to mysticism!
I have attempted a materialist dialectical and QED based explanation of wave/particle duality, in my (ready accessible) journal article, “The Real/Virtual Exchange of Quantum Particles as a Basis for the Resolution of Wave-Particle Duality and other Anomalies of the Quantum Phenomena”:
http://www.ptep-online.com/index_files/2014/PP-39-03.PDF
“Physics must not be regarded through the eyes of a mathematician, who is a quasi-nihilist by definition. Physics must be regarded through the eyes of a Physicist.”
I completely agree with this statement by Dr. De Mees. The crisis in modern physics can be attributed to this mathematical alienation of physics brought on by Albert Einstein. Mathematics based fantasies and mysticism, and particularly the “consistency of mathematics” now rule official physics, where as materialism was once its strength and great merit. It is true that in the face of the recognition of evolution in life forms and particularly, the quantum phenomena; causality and determinism based classical materialism is facing a crisis. But this crisis may be adequately dealt with, not by retreating (as Einstein did) to Early Greek mathematical idealism but only by adopting materialist dialectics as a tool of enquiry. Please see my RG Project: https://www.researchgate.net/project/THE-ROLE-OF-DIALECTICS-IN-NATURAL-SCIENCE and my books referenced there, specially, “The Einsteinian Universe? A Dialectical Perspective of Modern Theoretical Physics and Cosmology”.
Hi Thierry,
I absolutely agree that Maxwell's wave concept implies by structure that the "wave" cannot propagate without an underlying medium such as some form of ether, which is directly incompatible with the very idea of discrete isolated electromagnetic photons.
However, if the photon structure can be made to incoporate as part of its quantum some unidirectionally directed kinetic energy that could translationally propell it, then you can have self-propelling EM photons moving at c without any need for an underlying medium. This is such a structure, deemed Maxwell equations compliant that is described in the paper I gave a reference to before.
This seemed pertinent to the original poster's question.
There are only two differences between matter traveling through space and light traveling through space. The first is relatively trivial -- light is massless, whereas all known matter particles are massive (though the neutrino mass is very, very, very small). The second is more subtle. Quanta of light -- photons -- are bosons, so they do not obey the Pauli exclusion principle and tend to "cluster together" with other, similar photons. The known "fundamental" matter particles (electrons, quarks, neutrinos) are fermions, so the Pauli exclusion principle applies. That means they don't tend to clump up and form macroscopic waves. However, atoms can be bosonic, and recent experiments have shown matter wave phenomena in Bose-Einstein condensates (BECs). (Of course, wave-like diffraction and interference effects for single electrons were seen 90 years ago)
So the answer to your question is simply, light travels through the vacuum the same way matter does.
André, I don't understand "self-propelling EM photons moving at c without any need for an underlying medium". Could you explain that in a few words without the need of reading the whole paper?
Dear dr. Abdul Malek,
in my opinion, neither Einstein/Minkowski, nor QED will have the last word in the explanation of physical phenomena. One reason is that phenomena don’t have just one explanation, but rather their explanation depends on the addressed goal. And the latter changes inevitably as younger generations grow up.
That said, I don’t think that Einstein really proposed a space-time theory around 1905. Possibly, he just wanted to further develop Lorentz microscopic theory of the electron by connecting it to Boltzmann’s results. In this sense, he was among the first to speak of light quanta (to distinguish them from light particles of Newton’s emission theory of light.) He just took a “top-down” approach, in modern parlance. Space-time is the mathematical scaffold devised by Minkowski to represent the “inertial frames of reference” of Lorentz’ electrodynamics. If you are interested in picking up the problems of representation faced by both, relativity and QED, before they reached the actual mathematical skills, in my opinion you should give a look at the “starting papers”.
“…That said, I don’t think that Einstein really proposed a space-time theory around 1905…”
yes, what now is called “Einstein’s special relativity theory” in the reality was reported in September 1908, and had only one author – H. Minkowski. Just in his famous report Minkowski postulated that Matter’s spacetime not only isn’t absolute, as that claimed Poincare and further Einstein, but, besides, in the spacetime the space and time aren’t absolute also in sense that are really [dependently on each other] transformed in accordance with the Lorentz transformations. That was rather strange claim and possibly Minkowski could change his opinion, but he died after 3 months, when was near 45 years old.
But Einstein not only never objected to those who claimed him as the author of the recent SR, moreover, in the general relativity theory he developed Minkowski idea about real transformations of the spacetime, in this case – in accordance with Einstein equations.
Though in the reality Matter’s spacetime is the absolute [5]4D Euclidian empty container, where 4 dimensions of the 4D sub-spacetime are mutually independent since correspond to 4 independent main/universal degrees of freedom at changing of material objects states: in the 3D space, and of internal states, what is motion in the fourth ["coordinate time"] dimension. The spacetime cannot be impacted/ transformed by anything inside, i.e. by a material object or a “reference frame”; and it directly doesn’t impact on anything inside as well.
Returning to the thread’s question – there is nothing surprising in that photons move in the 3D space with the speed of light, every other particles, bodies, galaxies, etc. always move in the 4D Matter’s spacetime with 4D speeds that have identical absolute values that are equal to the sped of light.
At that formally there is no necessity for the particles, including photons, to move at that through some 4D [for photons – in 3D dimensions only] medium, as, e.g., on first glance there is no necessity in some medium for motion of, say, Earth in the spacetime. The fact that speeds of Earth and photons are different evidently isn’t essential in this case.
But seems as rather plausible to suggest that every material object indeed moves through “everythingferous” 4D “Aether” – a dense lattice of 4D fundamental logical elements that are primary elements from which every particle is built, as some specific disturbance of the Aether.
More – see https://www.researchgate.net/publication/273777630_The_Informational_Conception_and_Basic_Physics
Cheers
Article The Informational Conception and Basic Physics
Maxwell's equations imply that there is a physical medium permeating all of space. Ampere's circuital law in particular tells us that wherever there is an EM wave, there must also be a circulating electric current that is angularly accelerating. The error would therefore appear to lie with those who claim that light propagates in a vacuum. More likely, there will be tiny electric circulations at every point in space. Take a look at this https://www.researchgate.net/publication/313204969_Compressed_Orbits_and_E_mc
Article Compressed Orbits and E = mc²
Hi Thierry,
You wrote:
"I don't understand "self-propelling EM photons moving at c without any need for an underlying medium". Could you explain that in a few words without the need of reading the whole paper?"
This idea was initially formulated in general terms by Louis de Broglie, who incidently was the one who started the ball rolling for the whole Quantum Mechanics concept, when he discovered the relation between discrete quantum states and resonance states that inspired Schrödinger his wave equation, who then introduced the wave function and gave birth to Wave Mechanics, afterward enriched by Heisenberg and Feynman, upgrading it to full fledged Quantum Mechanics.
Since he was so smack on the bull's eye with respect to resonance states, this gave me trust that he might also be right about localized photons.
What he theorized beginning of the 1930's was that a permanently localized photon following a least action trajectory can satisfy at the same time the Bose-Einstein's statistic and Planck's Law, perfectly explain the photoelectric effect while obeying Maxwell's equations, while remaining totally conform to the properties of Dirac’s theory of complementary corpuscles symmetry, if it involves two particles, or half-photons of spin ½.
It so happens that when you involve these two half-photons as part of a LC system, you can see that you end up with half the photon's energy cyclically alternating between an electric E field state and a magnetic B field state of equal intensity by structure, that determine motion in straight line of the photon, while the other half remains unidirectional as simple normal kinetic energy, propelling the other half, at the speed of light.
In the LC structure, the oscillating half happens to be inert translationally and could not move in space if "something" was not pushing it along. This "pushing" is done by the other half of the photon's energy which is not involved in the EM oscillation.
So no need for any underlying ether since you have self-propulsion and default self-guidance in straight line, and all electromagnetic properties are direct attributes of each individual local electromagnetic quantum (each separate photon).
Dear Dr. Vesely,
Thanks for your response. Being a follower and practitioner of materialist dialectics as a tool of epistemology, I agree with you that there is no absolute truth (the last word). As Frderick Engels said, “Each mental image of the world system is and remains in actual fact limited, objectively through the historical stage and subjectively through the physical and mental constitution of its maker”. Anti-Duhring.
I am not too much concerned here about the history of the development of the concepts of space, time and the theories of modern physics, but the impact these theories are having on the one hand on the enquiry of positive knowledge (as opposed to myths, mysticism etc.) and on the other on the socio-political life of humanity. This is what I said in a recent comment in the Guardian, “The main problem that the scientists do not recognize is that they are the catalysts and an integral part of a social process that has vastly increased social production but ironically intensified the exploitation of man by man to such an extent that it has helped to amass enormous wealth and power in few hands at the cost of the destitution of the overwhelming majority. Not only that; some scientists have replaced the priests of the feudal past as apologists for this great injustice, by replacing discredited God of old theology with one having the veneer of scientific credibility.”
GR is now substituted for theology, even though it has little credibility as a scientific theory. Its credibility is enforced on natural science through contrived “proofs” to the “highest precision” at the behest of monopoly capitalism. The only way to “prove” the validity of any theory (as was the case with Newtonian physics) is through social/historical practice, technology, industry. If not; no matter how much a theory is mathematically consistent, beautiful etc; it is a myth – a fabrication in the mind of men.
“Spacetime” is a purely geometrical construct that is internally coherent with its premise and axioms (like geometry in general) but has no basis in reality. Spacetime manifold is an axiomatic abstraction (fabrication of mind), but is wilfully endowed with tangible material and physical properties and characteristics without any logical basis.
Einstein himself had doubt about the validity of “spacetime-field” and expressed it (towards the end of his life) in a letter to his friend Besso: “I consider it quite possible that physics cannot be based on the field concept, i.e., continuous structure. In that case, nothing remains of my entire castle in the air, gravitation theory included, (and of) the rest of modern physics” A. Pais, Subtle is the Lord …” The Science and the Life of Albert Einstein”, Oxford University Press, (1982) 467,
“I don’t think that Einstein really proposed a space-time theory around 1905…”
This is true, even though there was implication of it in SR of 1905. As Prof. Shevchenko rightly points out above, the credit for the formulation of the “spcetime” concept belongs to Minkowski (Einstein’s teacher) alone: “The views of space and time which I wish to lay before you have sprung from the soil of experimental physics, and therein lies their strength. They are radical. Henceforth space by itself, and time by itself, are doomed to fade away into mere shadows, and only a kind of union of the two will preserve an independent reality”. Minkowsky, H. “Raum und Zeit”, 1909, Jahresberichte der Deutschen Mathematiker-Vereinigung, 75-88, English tr. M. Saha. “Space and Time” 1920.
I have attempted a “Negation” of the “spacetime” concept (claimed as a basis) of objective reality, with one based on Hegel’s philosophy of space and time and QED; in my recent book, “The Philosophy of Space-Time: Whence Cometh Matter and Motion?” : https://www.amazon.com/Philosophy-Space-Time-Whence-Cometh-Matter/dp/984041884X
The creation of an electron-positron pair out of a electromagnetic wave shows that electrons and positrons are not essentially different from electromagnetic waves. In order to get a mass and to become local, it is sufficient that the electromagnetic waves become closed loops. (When they get a velocity, as a whole, the loops are almost closed). De Broglie already understood that particles can be expressed in terms of standing waves in a closed loop.
Hence, the propagation of matter necessarily occurs by the grace of the medium as well, exactly the same way as with what we call electromagnetic waves.
Hi André, I agree that the concept of half-photons with an opposite half spin is tempting. However, there is a fundamental difference in the perception of light waves and matter, while they are almost identical, as I explained in my post above.
However, with light waves, the velocity is given by the properties of the medium, and with matter, the velocity is given by the motion of the whole system, even if the waves inside the closed system are spinning at the speed of light.
How can matter be formed by "trapped" light and how can light be "trapped" in closed circuits? My best guess is that the denser the wave, the more physical properties of the medium get modified.
The perception of mass and charge could possibly be caused by the rotation properties of the matter particles.
Hi Thierry,
Indeed, I agree that there is a fundamental difference in the perception of light waves and matter, as you say, but there is not a lot of difference between a localized electromagnetic photon a la de Broglie and matter, since matter is also made of localized particles.
Note also that in both the cases of localized de Broglie photons and massive particles, the velocity does not depend on the medium, but on locally acquired kinetic energy.
This is why I found de Broglie's concept interesting.
In fact, you hit it right on the dot when you write "The perception of mass and charge could possibly be caused by the rotation properties of the matter particles."
That's exactly my conclusion also, and if you ever dig into the 3-spaces model, you will see exactly that.
In a manner of speaking, an electron is only a localized 0.511 MeV photon rotated 90 degrees, that we sort of observe sideways in the 3-spaces spatial geometry, half electromagnetic mass for the photon and full electromagnetic mass for the electron. The exact conversion mechanics is also established in a separate paper.
Hello Everybody,
I agree with the quotation given by Abdul:
"Einstein himself had doubt about the validity of “spacetime-field” and expressed it (towards the end of his life) in a letter to his friend Besso: “I consider it quite possible that physics cannot be based on the field concept,"
Actually, the light concept is not needed. I wrote the book 'Electrodynamics: The field-free approach' (see my RG profile) where I show how physics may be described without EM fields and waves. To account for interference, reflection, refraction, antennas and so on, we need only assume that interactions take time, mediated at speed c. This work is to a large extent based on the findings by Moon and Spencer during the 1950's.
Ram, have a look at those references and your question will be illuminated (if not answered).
Dear dr. Abdul Malek,
doing science is a human activity. Thus scientists can become exposed to all the other activities you mention, and can achieve personal power over scientific research, politics, or everything else. Possibly you know the following: ‘Dialectical materialism and modern physics’, an unpublished text by Max Born -->
(http://rsnr.royalsocietypublishing.org/content/64/2/155.)
However, I myself think that it would be advisable to try and preserve a domain of scientific inquiry independent of other interests. While there is such a domain, there is always the possibility to look at GR, QED, etc. also from a scientific viewpoint.
Hi André,
I think the deBroglie waves you refer to are quite well described in https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Neutrino_theory_of_light
Hi Thierry,
I know well his solution, and also the Buras solution based on chromodynamics, but both do not allow separating the E field from the B field, because they make use of the electromagnetic tensor that does not allow such separation, consequently, they do not completely integrate the magnetic properties of electromagnetic energy.
“However, I myself think that it would be advisable to try and preserve a domain of scientific inquiry independent of other interests.”
Dear Dr. Vesely, unfortunately, I do not agree with this proposition. For one thing, it isolates you from other aspects of life and the world and impairs your vision, lessens the scope of your intellectual creativity and (what is most harmful socially) leads to eliticism, chauvinism that fuels domination and exploitation in a class society. The strength of all historically mighty thinkers like Aristotle to Da Vinci to encyclopaedic Hegel; lies in the fact that they considered life and the world as a totality and explored as much of it as possible – limited only by their time. On the contrary, this kind of eliticism, expertise, specialization and microscopic division of society and its productive forces is preferred by a regressive, parasitic and decadent ruling class as we see in the world of monopoly capitalism to day. This kind of situation leads to the destruction of individual and social creativity and the regression of humanity in general.
Secondly, your world outlook greatly influences your epistemology, ideas, thought, and ideology. Hegel identified two modes of thought, namely “the view of understanding” (or crudely speaking causality), and “the view of reason” (or dialectics) that existed side by side since the early Greeks. Causality is a very limited mode of thought; it works in rigid and binary yes/no, good/bad, positive/negative fashion and as Kant showed, leads to contradiction and antimonies on some fundamental questions. Contrary to causality, dialectics puts contradiction as the basis of any existence; "the Unity of the Opposites" - “Being-Nothing together” ; a resolution of this logical contradiction is what gives rise to change, motion, evolution and the ontological manifestation of the universe. Causality has to depend on a “first cause” namely God, Big Bang etc. from without and has to depend on an “impulse” at every step of change, motion and evolution.
Causality works reasonably well for everyday life, classical mechanics and even Newtonian physics – in relatively simple systems where cause and effect can be clearly identified. But in more complex systems like life processes,, evolution and now as regards quantum dynamics and cosmology; causality is of no help at all. To save causality in physics Einstein had to fall back on obscurantist Greek mathematical idealism and mysticism with his “field” concept and renouncing materialism altogether – a world outlook that was the foundation and once the shining merit of natural science!
Natural science has now developed to a stage where it cannot proceed further without taking resort to a dialectical world outlook; because causality lies at the very root of the crisis in modern physics. Following the lead of Frederick Engels I use and advocate for a dialectical approach to natural science. I have used this approach in my works in the realm of quantum dynamics, astro (and particle) physics, cosmology and biology. Just very recently I started a ResearchGate project “THE ROLE OF DIALECTICS IN NATURAL SCIENCE” : https://www.researchgate.net/project/THE-ROLE-OF-DIALECTICS-IN-NATURAL-SCIENCE
I knew about the view of Max Born, you refer to. Born did not publish it himself and as far as I know did not speak about dialectical materialism in public; it was published later for propaganda purpose. In any case, Born was biased, misinformed and plain wrong. To rephrase Karl Marx, “The ruling ideas of an epoch are the ideas of its ruling class” – Max Born like most officially recognized scientists of a capitalist society is no exception! Regards.
Hi André, you wrote:
"It so happens that when you involve these two half-photons as part of a LC system, you can see that you end up with half the photon's energy cyclically alternating between an electric E field state and a magnetic B field state of equal intensity by structure, that determine motion in straight line of the photon, while the other half remains unidirectional as simple normal kinetic energy, propelling the other half, at the speed of light."
I totally agree with the first part. It is to me evident that the general thought of E=cB , without retardation and cyclic alternation is false.
However, I think that with the actual knowledge, even an initial push at velocity "c" cannot maintain two real particles move at "c" for a long time, unless being a wave. Several theories, such as SRT and Heaviside's gravitomagnetism give restrictions to that possibility.
Hi Thierry,
It depends on what you include in the "actual knowledge".
First, with the LC photon model, velocity c is permanently maintained simply because the translational energy and the EM oscillating energy are always separated half for the first and half for the second (always half and half). The first half is translational in space, propelling the second half, and the second half is inert (will not move on its own in space).
It so happens that whenever the total amount of energy of the quantum varies, it always redistributes half and half within the quantum, which is what maintains the equilibrium velocity of c.
To understand why this is so, you would need to understand how Newton's kinetic energy equation K=(mv2)/2 can be upgraded to full relativistic status.
This reveals that the "carrying energy" of the inert rest mass of the electron can only have the same LC structure as that of LC photons. This also explains why it is impossible for a massive particle to reach c.
In a few words, it is because the combined electromagnetic half of the carrying energy plus the total electromagnetic energy of the rest mass of the electron (all of its inert rest mass) is always greater than the translational half of the carrying energy quantum, irrespective of the amount of kinetic energy you provide as carrying energy.
But this can't be explained in a conversation like this. If you are interested, you will find the complete explanation in the paper attached. Then, if this makes sense to you, the first paper I referred should begin making sense also.
Article From Classical to Relativistic Mechanics via Maxwell
Dear Ram,
Although vacuum is without matter, that doesn't mean that it hasn't electromagnetic properties. In fact vacuum must have electric permeability and magnetic permittivity which are the physical magnitudes associted to the velocity of the light in vacuum. This is one experimental fact corraborated in optics and in classical electrodynamics, we don't need to have other microscopic models to understand that the electromagnetic waves can propagate exchanging electric to magnetic energies in vacuum thanks to Maxwell's equations which transform then without taking into account the matter which surounds them. Notice that this is very different phenomena of what happens for sounds which are mechanical waves which need to move atoms to exist. This confussion has introduced the aether in the past as something forgotten in wrong assumptions made in Physics,
Space is not ''nothing''. It is empty of matter but it is not empty of electromagnetic waves and these carries energies. So it is never empty. According to general relativity, each location of spacetime is curved and these curvature explains how matter and light travel in it.
Light is an electromagnetic wave like for example all the radio wave. From another point of view (quantum mechanics) the light is a particle without mass named photon. The photons they behave in a way similar to projectiles. The bullets have not need a medium to propagate. So electromagnetic waves have not need any medium to propagate. Electromagnetic waves as well as the bullets (photons), they can be stopped or slowed down (attenuated) by any object. Therefore the photons or electromagnetic waves in vacuum can traveling indefinitely as long as they do not interact with another object.
"Therefore the photons or electromagnetic waves in vacuum can traveling indefinitely as long as they do not interact with another object."
Absolute "vacuum" as such does not exist! What we have is "quantum vacuum"; which is a "sea" of virtual particle popping in and out of existence. The presence of the virtual particles can be accurately accounted for, as the "Lamb Shift" in the spectra of atoms; as "Casimir Force" etc.
Any tangible particle like photons passing through this vacuum are most likely affected by the virtual particles of the quantum vacuum!
Maxwell equations tell that the electromagnetic waves carry energy and momentum (Poynting vector) without needing matter. All that they need is to have an electromagnetic vacuum with permittivity and permeability different of zero. The quantum concepts are not necessary at all for understanding this question.
Another different problem is if we want to know how is it possible to have one electromagnetic non zero trivial vacuum with effects as the Casimir's one. That is a very different question which is out of the wave behaviour of the classical electromagntic waves.
All that they need is to have an electromagnetic vacuum with permittivity and permeability different of zero. The quantum concepts are not necessary at all for understanding this question.
They had no knowledge of the quantum vacuum; that is why they needed a fictitious "aether". When none was found, they invented another mathematical fiction - a "new aether" ("spacetime") as a medium for the propagation of light, which is even needed for the "bending", etc., of cosmic light.
This does not necessarily mean that now-known quantum vacuum can be ignored and fictitious classical media with non-zero permittivity and permeability can carry on as usual as valid description of a tangible medium!
"How does light travel in space where no matter exists?" is THE fundamental question whose correct answer will likely lead to a unified theory.
For about 100 years, most of academia has emphasized theories without Aether with spectacular failure, evidenced by the number of patches needed that implicitly put something where the Aether was:
Even with these patches the theories do not explain such things as faster than light communication between entangled particles, and many other critical details.
For thousands of years prior to academia's 100 year diversion, the need for a fluid to propagate light was a given -- Kelvin, Maxwell, Newton, Descartes, Aristotle, etc. Michelson-Morley experiments clearly showed that some of the assumptions about that fluid were wrong. With two fixes to the assumptions, the need for all those patches disappears, the Michelson Morley results become compatible with the fluid, and unification becomes a matter finding the right Lagrangian for the fluid.
Einstein's early work provides insight to repair the assumptions regarding the fluid. First, Special Relativity (SR) suggests that the fluid is a hyperfluid -- i.e. a fluid in hyperspace -- 4 spatial dimensions plus time. Second, Einstein's principle of "Wave-particle duality" suggests that both particles and waves are made of fluid -- e.g. particles are vortexes in the fluid, and light is waves in the fluid. Both of these ideas have history individually; the progress comes when I put them both together -- search google for "hypervortex gary warren" to see some of that progress.
The aether is not necessary for classical electrodynamics which can have propagation without moving anything more that the transformation of its magnetic field in electric and vice verse using Faraday's law. This is very different that the longitudinal waves of mechanics.
On the other hand QED vacuum only is needed if the frequency is so high that the energy is twice or more times the one associated to one electron at rest.
Daniel Baldomir, Both Faraday's law and Ampere's Circuital law are required for EM radiation. Hence there has to be a tiny electric circulation at every point in space where EM radiation is present.
“The aether is not necessary for classical electrodynamics which can have propagation without moving anything more that the transformation of its magnetic field in electric and vice verse using Faraday's law. This is very different that the longitudinal waves of mechanics...”
here seems would be useful to explain – what are those “electric and magnetic fields” and why Faraday’s law so differs from “mechanical laws”, which determine propagations of waves in mediums, that propagation of EM waves doesn’t require some medium also…
And, besides, photons aren’t some exotic particles/waves that move in the Matter’s [5]4D Euclidian absolute spacetime with “the speed of light”. Every particle, planet, stars, galaxies are moving in the spacetime with 4D speeds that have absolute values be equal to the speed of light – without Faraday’s law; and all are, at that 4D particles/waves. Photons differ from other particles only in that they propagate in the 3D space only, when having “rest mass” particles move obligatorily in the spacetime’s 4-th [“coordinate time”] direction, and so, as that Pythagoras prescribed, 3D spatial components of their speeds are always lesser then the speed of light.
From what follows rather rational suggestion that every particle is some 4D disturbance in a 4D Aether that fills the spacetime, which [suggestion] don’t contradict with any physical law.
See also SS post on 2-nd page here and the paper linked in the post.
Cheers
Let us try to be clearer writing some points:
1. The propagation of the electromagnetic waves in vacuum don't need the concept of photon. Maxwell's equations are more than enough.
2. The main difficulty is that the velocity of the electromagnetic waves in vacuum depend of the electric (permitivity) and magnetic (permeability) which are constants different than zero.
3. Vacuum is only a fundamental state being full of particle-antiparticle pairs having mutipolar distributions, which allows its electromagnetic features no to be zero.
“…The propagation of the electromagnetic waves in vacuum don't need the concept of photon. Maxwell's equations are more than enough…”
- nonetheless electromagnetic waves are beams of coherent photons…
“…The main difficulty is that the velocity of the electromagnetic waves in vacuum depend of the electric (permitivity) and magnetic (permeability) which are constants different than zero…”
- electric (permitivity) and magnetic (permeability) are some parameters of material mediums that contain [electrically] charged particles /systems of particles and characterize interaction of EM fields with mediums. For vacuum, which by definition doesn’t contain anything, including charges, these notions are introduced in SI system practically formally, nonetheless they indeed adequately define the speed of light since physical vacuum isn’t some void container, but it is filled by dense regular 4D Aether – rather probably by 4D lattice of 4D fundamental logical elements (FLE), where photons indeed interact with the lattice simply since are some moving disturbance in aether; and the rate of the motion is determined by existent universal rate of FLE states’ changes in the lattice;.
and where, again, every particle moves as a wave [and these waves don’t differ principally from photon’s waves] with 4D speed of light, photons aren’t some exclusion in Matter.
More see the links in SS posts above
Cheers
"...since physical vacuum isn’t some void container, but it is filled by dense regular 4D Aether – rather probably by 4D lattice of 4D fundamental logical elements (FLE),..."
There is no reality behind “spacetime” 4D aether. It is an artificial and abstract geometrical construction based on some axioms without any “proof”. Like all geometrical rules; any deduction that are consistent with the premise is true; but has nothing to do with the REAL world. This is the very reason we see paradoxes starting from Zeno to Einstein. There is imperfectness in Newtonian physics, but there are no paradoxes, because it deals with the real world.
Space and time are abstractions. There is no “time” as such, starting in an infinite past (Newton) or starting in the recent past with a “Big Bang” as in the 4D “spaetime” construct. Nor any space endowed with physical/material attributes. Both space and time are only relational and only has meaning in relation to matter in motion. As Hegel said “It’s essence (matter in motion, A.M.) is to be the immediate unity of space and time; it is time really persisting through space, of space which is made truly distinct through time. …Only in motion have space and time reality”. So, the whole virtual edifice built on the theories of relativity in modern physics has nothing to do with the real world; and everything derived from these theories are also just mathematics based fantasies.
Coming back to the original question, dialectics and quantum dynamics denies the existence of “Absolute vacuum” even in the (impossible) absence of tangible matter particles. “Empty space” – the quantum vacuum, contains virtual particles and mediates the motion of photons and other matter particles including gravitons:
Please see: “The Philosophy of Space-Time: Whence Cometh Matter and Motion?”:
https://www.amazon.com/Philosophy-Space-Time-Whence-Cometh-Matter/dp/984041884X
Abdul Malek,
I appreciate your answer. It is so correct in every detail, i.e. I agree. Physics has to be based on reality, meaning observations and measurement. Mathematics has to play a second role as describing and summarizing the measurements. This approach I used in my text book given in my profile. It is essential to understand that time is motion and space is distance between objects. Time dilation is a slow down of motion.
Greetings
There is no absolutly empty space. Space in cosmic void away from filament of concentration of galaxies is extremely more empty than space with a galaxie aways from a star system, or the space within a star system, or the space near a planet, or the space within a planet. All of these type of space is filled with all kind of matters: neutrinos, photons, dark matter!. darl energy!, proton (not always).
Ref:
Taking the Measure of Nothing in the Universe
http://blogs.discovermagazine.com/outthere/2017/01/31/nothing/#.WJtWm_nhCUk
Dear fellows,
We have a highly interesting discussion here. Let me make some summarizing of the ideas mentioned above.
Sara Liyuba Vesely: “I think, one should distinguish between theories and branches of knowledge. In my opinion, a theory is a logical or mathematical framework devised so as to avoid contradictions, whereas a branch of knowledge attaches to the phenomena under study explanations that seem reasonable at the moment of explanation.”
Thierry De Mees: “Physics must not be regarded through the eyes of a mathematician, who is a quasi-nihilist by definition. Physics must be regarded through the eyes of a Physicist. Hence, without a physical medium, a wave propagation cannot occur. This was probably never understood by Einstein.”
Abdul Malek: “I completely agree with this statement by Dr. De Mees. The crisis in modern physics can be attributed to this mathematical alienation of physics brought on by Albert Einstein.
The only way to “prove” the validity of any theory (as was the case with Newtonian physics) is through social/historical practice, technology, industry. If not; no matter how much a theory is mathematically consistent, beautiful etc; it is a myth – a fabrication in the mind of men.”
André Michaud: “I absolutely agree that Maxwell's wave concept implies by structure that the "wave" cannot propagate without an underlying medium such as some form of ether, which is directly incompatible with the very idea of discrete isolated electromagnetic photons.”
Gary Warren: "How does light travel in space where no matter exists?" is THE fundamental question whose correct answer will likely lead to a unified theory.“
Kjell Prytz: “I agree. Physics has to be based on reality, meaning observations and measurement. Mathematics has to play a second role as describing and summarizing the measurements.“
AZ: Why do not we use some experiments which show a different approach to the problem if we agree that physics should use only results of physical observations and experiments?
Michelson-Morley Experiment and Einstein’s theory based on that experiment show not only one way of thought. There are another approach and explanation of those and many other experiments findings and observations. The most interesting findings are summarized in my paper published recently.
Global Journal of Science Frontier Research: A (Physics and Space Science) has made publication of my research article titled ‘Physics and Philosophy of Wave Reference Frames in a Retrospective of 20-th Century Findings and Illusions.’
The article is accessible at the following path.
https://globaljournals.org
Recently Published Journals
GJCFR-A Volume 16 Issue 6
(Pages 89-112)
I guess, the article will be interesting for every participant of this discussion because it explains many ideas mentioned by different researchers on this discussion from the same point of view that helps to determine the speed of light regarding the space and the observer-to-space relative speed of motion. Obviously, it becomes possible by a new device mentioned in the article (SMA) and some alternative approach to “well-known” categories used in physics for a long time in the light of new experiments.
Please read sections 'De Witte Findings and Aurora Effect' and 'The Trident Experiment carefully.' The Trident Experiment shows the operability of SMA in all possible measurements of observer-to-medium relative motion. Please let me know if you have any problem downloading the article.
If you like to know more, please read my article ‘Philosophy, physics and mathematics of relative and absolute motion.' It explains the most controversial experiment conducted by CERN “Faster than Light Neutrino Experiment.” Both articles use the same point of view for explanation of all phenomena.
I have a question to all participants of this discussion. What should we do more to show falsification of Relativity and conduct correct physical experiments based on measurements instead of fantasies?
https://globaljournals.org
Allan,
When you quoted my mention that the wave concept of Maxwell's theory requires an underlying ether, you forgot to mention the alternate explanation that does not require such an underlying ether while remaining Maxwell's equations compliant:
"However, if the photon structure can be made to incoporate as part of its quantum some unidirectionally directed kinetic energy that could translationally propell it, then you can have self-propelling EM photons moving at c without any need for an underlying medium."
Dear André,
Every explanation in physics should have some support from experiments as you know. Suppose, I propose you a set of physical experiments which show the same law of propagation of any signals in any signal-medium combinations.
Can you accept the new physical reality that way and the necessity of a new approach to the old problem of explanation?
Dear Allan,
I certainly do.
But quoting from my post only one of the two possible Maxwell's equations compliant interpretations that I highlighted, is not, it seems to me, conducive to considering all new approaches.
Theories, Maxwell's and mine or any other, are only interpretations. Maxwell's equations are in fact Gauss, Faraday and Ampere experiment based equations plus Maxwell's contribution leading to calculating the speed of light from first principles. Something else entirely, which underlies all possible theories or interpretations.
Complete quote is ok, but partial quote is not.
i have a theory which is really very near to the completion by which i can unified the gravitation and modern physics, i am really working on it from about 9 years by which i can prove so many thing like why the things do like this only, for example why sound can not travel in space where no medium exist(as every body no) and what matters exist in space(explanation about ether) and so many thing. only i want to know that if i will prove these thing by my theory then it will be acceptable or not by the world?
i have read so many researches and physics then i came to know what is really behind it, if required then we will produce the mathematical explanation about it.
Dear Ram,
The theory you have been working on may be the correct one. But note that every one who has come up with a self-consistant theory thinks that his personal theory is the right one. This is why there is so much discussion.
It may well be that each one has understood correctly various parts of the big puzzle, but only experiments that will eventually be carried out will confirm what the real interpretation will be that matches objective reality.
Currently, we are at a stage where every body is showing his personal theory to the others.
At some point in the future, the suggested experiments, if practicable, will be carried out and will orient our attention to what the results confirm.
Nobody knows yet which direction is the best.
So, your best bet is to complete your theory and describe it as well as you can, so that the possible experiments that could confirm it have a chance to be considered amont the others.
What is important is that your theory does not contradict any already confirmed experiments.
“Time dilation is a slow down of motion.”
Dear Prof. Prytz
Thanks for your kind words. But I am a little intrigued by your above quote; I wish you would elaborate this point a bit more. Slowdown of motion is conceived in terms of acceleration/deceleration but has nothing to do with time dilation.
Einstein assumed a constant speed of light that forms the basis of SR, 4D “spacetime” formulation by Minkowski, time dilation etc., and is accepted as the basis of objective reality of the universe in modern cosmology as par GR. Time dilation is presumably “proved” indirectly by the broadening of the light curves of Supernova Type 1a; longer half-life of unstable quantum particles etc.; and directly by the slowdown of atomic clocks flown in aeroplanes – all of those results are contested. GPS is vociferously touted at the “proof” of time dilation, but it is not true! GPS clocks are maintained through experimental observation and are affected by many factors. Even if (un-necessary) opposite effects of SR and GR is included, their affect is only minimal compared to other factors.
Moreover, as the references in my comments above shows; 4D “spacetime” manifold with tangible physical attribute (warping, slowdown etc.) has no meaning as both space and time are mere abstractions and have meaning only in relation to matter in motion. Thanks.
Dear Abdul,
to me a clock is just a periodic motion, e.g. the pendulum from which we may define a second.
As I show in the article "Force between electric charges...":
https://www.researchgate.net/publication/305659525_Force_between_Electric_Charges_a_New_Approach_to_Relativity_Theory
time dilation may be derived from the interaction between two identical charges moving in parallel. When in motion the repulsion is weaker due to the magnetic effect. Using the known formulas for electric force and magnetic effect, time dilation follows and from that the rest of SR. No need for Michelson, that is.
Furthermore, speed of light as well as its invariance follow provided we utilize the known formulas for electric and magnetic forces (containing epsilon and mu).
Now, the only peculiar thing with SR is that the observer may generate the magnetic effect solely by putting him/herself in motion. This is the principle of relativity and completes the interpretation of time dilation since now all observed motions will appear slower when the observer is in motion relative to what he/she observes.
Cheers,
Kjell
Article Force between Electric Charges: a New Approach to Relativity Theory
Dear André,
I agree with your comment about quotations. Moreover, you mentioned some interesting aspects of experimental physics.
“At some point in the future, the suggested experiments, if practicable, will be carried out and will orient our attention to what the results confirm. Nobody knows yet which direction is the best.”
Suppose, we have carried out some physical experiments which show a contradiction to well-established theories. In that case, experimental data of all set of experiments remain correct, but a theory becomes wrong because new experiments give us “unusual data.”
For example, Einstein postulated this. The speed of light is constant for every observer regardless observer-to-light speed of relative motion. His postulate explained the so-called null result of the Michelson-Morley experiment.
However, Norbert Feist (a researcher from Germany) conducted Acoustic Michelson-Morley Experiment with the same null result in 21-th century. Physical measurements show this. In case of the constant speed of observer-to-air relative motion, the full duration of a round-trip experiment with an acoustic signal remains constant despite direction of signal propagation. That exactly match the result of optical Michelson-Morley experiment.
Can you explain that result?
Kjell Prytz: “To me a clock is just a periodic motion”
In that case, you should explain the relationship between a periodic motion and physical interaction between that motion and physical Time.
Can you do it?
RAM NARESH YADAV: “I have a theory which is really very near to the completion by which i can unified the gravitation and modern physics”
Can you tell us the basic theoretical framework of your theory (basic postulates experiments and so on)?
If you explain something that does exist in space and light uses that thing to make propagation through space, you have ether in your theory doesn’t matter how you call it.
Do you use that way of thoughts?
Hi Allan Zade,
do I understand correctly: You ask for the connection between motion and time?
To me Physics is defined by Newton's three laws. Through the second law time is connected to motional change. This is the physical time, i.e. the scientific time.
Since only motional change is involved in the definition for time there is no absolute time, only relative, just like motion is relative.
Greetings
Dear Kjell Prytz,
“Since only motional change is involved in the definition for time there is no absolute time, only relative, just like motion is relative.”
That is a good observation. What if I show you another step that way with the following statements?
Do you agree that point of view?
Hi Allan!
Well, yes and no. Time is of course an artefact since the proper scientific concept is motion. In that sense time doesn't exist. But in daily language time could mean other things relating to aging as well as evolutionary processes at which physics has no access.
If you by physical process mean a motional change, then I agree with your second point.
Cheers,
Kjell
Dear Kjell Prytz,
You gave me one more interesting answer. Let me make open more step on that way.
Suppose we have two Duration Measurement Device (DMD) which count duration of their internal recurrent physical processes to be not mistaken with “common understanding of so-called Time.”
Each DMD comprises an oscillating device and counting device that counts oscillations of the oscillating device. An indication of each DMD appears as a number of oscillations counted by counting device.
Suppose now this. We put those DMD together, set indications of their counting devices on the same number and put DMD far away from each other. Now we can conduct any measurement of the speed of anything going between those DMD. In case of a car, the situation seems obvious.
Suppose, we send a light beam between those DMD. Can you predict the result of such experiment?
Dear Louis,
I think that your definition of vacuum is very far of the one of Quantum Field Theory or QED, in particular, if we speak on the electromagnetic properties. You wrote:
"There is no absolutly empty space. Space in cosmic void away from filament of concentration of galaxies is extremely more empty than space with a galaxie aways from a star system, or the space within a star system, or the space near a planet, or the space within a planet".
Casimir effect or Lamb shift can be measured as associated physical effects to the electromagnetic vacuum. Let me only give you only one simple result of physical quantities that can be measured for singularizing it:
P= e2E/2αhc C.V/m3
where P is the electric polarization of the vacuum for a given electric charge surrounded by virtual photons, e electric charge, α fine structure constant, h Planck constante and c the velocity of light. In the same form we could calculate the magnetization ,etc...
Thus the vacuum is not the empty space concept and also is not the aether that Michelson and Morley tried to measure. It is in fact a physical object with electromagnetic properties, although the electromagnetic waves only need Maxwell's equations for propagating within it.
By the way, time is so real as can be energy, momentum, electric charge, etc...as fundamental physical magnitudes.
Dear Daniel Baldomir,
You told us this. “Time is so real as can be energy, momentum, electric charge, etc... as fundamental physical magnitudes.”
As you know, physical properties can be measured by a proper physical device.
Can you prove your claim by a physical experiment with step-by-step explanation of physical interaction of physical Time and a measurement device?
Dear Allan,
You propose:
"Suppose, we have carried out some physical experiments which show a contradiction to well-established theories. In that case, experimental data of all set of experiments remain correct, but a theory becomes wrong because new experiments give us “unusual data.”
I would express my personal view regarding physical experiments a little differently:
"Suppose that we carry out some physical experiment whose confirmed results are not explainable by well established theories, then how can the newly expanded pool of all accumulated confirmed results from all physically carried out experiments be explained in a single theory that will exclude none of the confirmed results."
From this perspective, the constancy of the speed of light in vacuum and tenuous media such as the atmosphere has long been established and confirmed out of any doubt, and is constantly verified by use of all energy frequencies, radio, microwave, radar, Doppler radar, laser, etc. on top of being also accounted for by Maxwell's second derivative on this issue.
My view is that any experiment that confirms that the speed of light is constant just adds to the overwhelming pool of accumulated evidence, and that any experiment that seems to contradicts this must be thoroughly examined for flaws.
If no flaws are found in the procedure, then this new confimed information has to be taken into account, and an explanation must be found, that also explains why the speed of light is constant in all other cases.
What is the electric charge? what is the energy?....The important is that I can measure them and to know how they produce new magnitudes. This is what happens with the time since the clocks exist. Without time the energy couldn´t be defined .....and the Physics didn't work at all.
It seems last two pages here a next time contain posts that are written with violating the main rule for any discussion to be fruitful – before, or at least as the first step in, the discussion main notions/terms/phenomena should be properly/substantively defined/understood. In other cases only some scholastic exercises with using bare declarations are possible.
Here these notions are “Space” and “Time”, which are Meta-notions and so can be properly defined only in the “The Information as Absolute” conception; correspondingly they are utmost fundamental Rules/Possibilities that as possibilities are necessary for any informational pattern/system could exist and change. As Rules they establish that between different patterns of fixed information must be “spatial interval” and between different states of a changing pattern/system must be “temporal” interval.
As the possibilities Space and Time form for a concrete informational patterns “empty containers”, for example – a sheet of paper is a space to place a text, and, besides, implicit possibility to change the text, including at writing, are necessary to write a text;
or {5]4D Euclidian spacetime that is necessary for the informational system “Matter” to exist and to evolve. At that the Rules by no means don’t establish – what these intervals’ values are, unique requirement is that either spatial or temporal intervals must not be equal to zero exactly.
Correspondingly if there is only one changing object, it is senseless to say – what is size and how long time it changes However, if there exist more then one changing object it becomes be possible to compare their spatial sizes “one larger/lesser then other” and processes “if processes started simultaneously, then, say, accompanied/ “spent” at end of one process temporal interval is larger/lesser then the other process’s corresponding interval”.
Since Matter is rather simple logical system that is built and changes by basing on/using a rather small number of identical primary fundamental logical elements and a rather small number of logical rules/ “Nature laws”, material objects change their states – internal states and positions in the space, in highly “standardized” manner, and so humans can, using some material objects as standards, compare parameters of processes in the material objects/systems.
Both Rules/Possibilities act [and so exist] implicitly, but quite objectively, at that they are for given closed [i.e. that don’t interact with its environment] informational system “absolute”, i.e. they don’t impact on the systems’ objects [besides the unique Rules’ conditions above] and any object cannot impact on/change the implicit actions of them.
They aren’t “abstractions”. They aren’t some “motions” – in the reality that are material objects [or, say, humans’ thoughts move as well, but in other spacetime] that move in Matter’s spacetime. If between points A and B there is a spatial interval, say, 50 km; and between B and C an interval 100 km, these intervals exist objectively, universally, i.e. independently on anything, for example they can be intervals between point on solid Earth or between points in a void space, etc. etc., etc.
Time is the Rule/Possibility that is fundamentally connected with the notion/phenomenon “Change” and both are, correspondingly self-inconsistent notions/phenomena, from what follow two main conditions for any change could happen – (i) to change some fixed pattern is necessary to spent something what in physics is called “Energy”, and (ii) on some scale states of the pattern become be uncertain. But both phenomena exist objectively, at that the notion “Change” is applied in concrete changes of concrete patterns, when the notion “Time”, as “Space” above acts universally, independently on concrete changes, as the Rule that requires non-zero temporal interval at any change and as the Possibility to happen of any change.
Thus in physics letters “t” and , say, “x” are used in two senses – as coordinate axes [realizations as the possibilities] and as temporal and spatial intervals, including, for example (0,t) and (0,x) as coordinates of points in the spacetime.
Though in everyday practice the word “time” often is applied to the time intervals only; moreover, in physics often the [many people call it “Einstein’s definition”] “definition of the time” is applied – “Time is what clock show”. But that isn’t correct – clock are simply some material objects that uniformly change their states and they show not the time, again, the Rule “Time” doesn’t define any concrete absolute measure, they show how their state changes and so – how other material objects change comparing with this uniform changing.
In the reality the notions/phenomenon “Time” acts in the system “Matter” in more complex way that is given above, in Matter two Rules/Possibilities “Time” act, or, by other words Matter’s time is two-dimensional [when “Space” is 3D]. More about this nuance and some other properties and applications of the notions/phenomena above – again, see the link in the SS post on 20-th page.
Cheers
2nd Feb, 2017
Louis Brassard
Dear Daniel,
I did not provide a definition of empty space but simply describe different density of occupation of space in different type of locations in the Universe. When I said that there is ''no empty space'' I simply mean that everywhere there are some particles. About the reality of Energy and Time , I am not so sure. I do not deny the usefullness of such physical concepts but I am not sure if they will be kept in the long run.
I am convince about the reality of change but not about the reality of the constructed concept of time. The concept of mathematical dimension fits well space that we move in but is not so fit to change where we can move as we want. We can'nt undo changes, we cannot move in the time dimension as we move in normal space dimension. But as you know this topic is not one we can settle; it is one of the best unendless topic on RG.
Energy is like money, a convenient universal conversion among all kind of physical concepts for doing work but like money it does not exist in itself. The conservation of energy is equivalent tto the invariance of the laws of nature relative to time and the later notion is a good platonic notion and as all of them is false. The whole of what exist is an evolution, including the laws of nature and so symmetry relative to time is fraud. Time itself is fraud concept. So again I just state my position knowing very well it is not going to be a convincing argument.
2nd Feb, 2017
Abdul Malek
Technologie DMI, Montréal , Canada
Dear Prof. Prytz,
Sorry, I had to take off from this discussion. Your explanation of time dilation is still not clear to me. Time can be dilated or contracted if it is a tangible thing with physical attributes and has an ontological existence independent of men. As I have shown in my book, from a philosophical point of view, time and space are abstractions and are have relevance only in the context of matter in motion, and matter is the only thing that is an ontological being. So any manipulation of space or time (bending, dilation etc.) does not make any sense. Minkowski and Einstein’s “spacetime” with tangible physical attribute is a mere mathematical/mental fabrication without any scientific basis and any extrapolation or inference from this abstract entity has no meaning either.
A clock no matter how you fabricate it has to depend on physical/material parts and hence would be affected by surrounding material influences including electromagnetic fields, motion, gravitational force etc. so its rate may change accordingly, but it is impermissible to say that this change in the clock is due to “time” itself (a fictitious and imaginary entity) changing! As I asserted above all the experimental “proofs” claiming “time dilation” are due to confirmation bias and mostly contrived or deliberately conceived. No social/historical practice and experience including GPS has any basis on so-called time dilation, warping of space etc. and hence no scientific validity. Regards, Abdul
Please also see my comments on the role of mathematics in modern physics at: https://www.researchgate.net/post/Is_the_universe_inherently_mathematical_or_is_mathematics_a_construct_of_our_brain_that_is_very_efficient_to_describe_the_universe
4 Recommendations
2nd Feb, 2017
Kjell Prytz
Malardalen University
Allan Zade: "Suppose, we send a light beam between those DMD. Can you predict the result of such experiment?"
Answer: No, I cannot since you have not defined the concept of distance.
1 Recommendation
2nd Feb, 2017
Daniel Baldomir
University of Santiago de Compostela
Dear Louis,
I cannot understand you:
The whole of what exist is an evolution, including the laws of nature and so symmetry relative to time is fraud. Time itself is fraud concept. So again I just state my position knowing very well it is not going to be a convincing argument.
Time is not only a concept, but something measurable. Notice people in the street that you can say, more or less, what is the amount of time that they accumulatte. Monday I have an schedule to follow with other people is going to follow too with exact accuracy. I know physical processes that they cannot back in time and I can recognize if you put me one wrong film. For instance, if you show me one city with suddenly the destroyed houses start build by themselves, while if you pass the film in the inverse direction them I can explain it very well. The implicit physical law in such film is the entropy which tells you in what direction must be the film, etc...there too much physical facts to say for this post.
Frankly, for me you are an absolute ignorant of what the physics is if you say a so absurd qualification as that the time is a fraud. Obviously you can tell what you want and that belongs to your responsability, but for me it means that you don't know the minimum of physics (sorry for being so no polite with your opinion, not with you), as for instance the Faraday's law where the variation in time of a field ( B) transforms exactly in another very different (E ) and so on. Since Maxwell's equations we know as an experimental fact that time is a physical magnitude!
On the other hand, I don't know the evolution of the physical laws. In Physics there are no a Darwin at all and if a law will evolve thus, bu definition, will be a no law.
1 Recommendation
2nd Feb, 2017
Daniel Baldomir
University of Santiago de Compostela
Dear Abdul,
How is possible that you measure the decay time of a neutron much higher than 15 minutes when its velocity is important respect to the one of the light? The only explanation that I know is the one of the special relativity. Do you know another without using the transformation of the time using Lorentz transformations?
2nd Feb, 2017
Allan Zade
André Michaud: “If no flaws are found in the procedure, then this new confirmed information has to be taken into account, and an explanation must be found, that also explains why the speed of light is constant in all other cases.”
AZ: As I can see, you did not read my paper ‘Physics and Philosophy of Wave Reference Frames in a Retrospective of 20-th Century Findings and Illusions’ mentioned above. The paper offers all necessary explanations of all experiments with sound in air and light in vacuum. All experiments follow the same law of elliptical motion of the signals in two-way experiments or round-trip experiments.
As you remember, relativity uses a round-trip experiments (experiment with mirrors) and Einstein’s postulate about equal “Time” that light spends to travel in two opposite directions. Modern experiments destroy that illusion by correct measurements of duration in one-way experiments.
The technology suitable for one-way experiments appeared only toward the end of 20-th century. Theoretical and philosophical approach to that way of measurements appeared only a few years ago. There is a universal device mentioned in the paper (SMA) that uses the same way of measurements for all possible signal-medium combinations. The device is described in details in international patent application WO/2015/040505.
In other words, we have technology that helps us to make a one-way experiment with light wat was impossible at the time when Einstein entertained himself by his “thought experiments” and build his theory.
The ground reason for that experiment is this. In case of a constant speed of observer-to-medium relative motion, a round-trip experiment shows a constant duration of signal propagation. The difference can be found only by one-way experiment that splits a round-trip experiment for two one-way experiments. That way of measurements destroys the cornerstone postulate of Relativity.
Hove you any counter-argument against that method?
2nd Feb, 2017
Allan Zade
Allan Zade: "Suppose, we send a light beam between those DMD. Can you predict the result of such experiment?"
Kjell Prytz: No, I cannot since you have not defined the concept of distance.
AZ: OK, that is a good observation again. Suppose this; distance is something that light propagates through in some duration. The longer duration it takes, the more distance appears between two points (locations of two DMDs).
In case of a round-trip experiment mentioned above, the full distance covered by a light beam is constant as long as the observer keeps a constant observer-to-space speed of relative motion. Therefore, an observer falls under an illusion that he has the same “constant” result in case of motion and case of its rest location in space.
That problem depends on reference frame used in measurements. An observer should use wave reference frame instead inertial reference frame to see the correct interpretation of the result of such experiment. All those aspects are explained in my paper ‘Physics and Philosophy of Wave Reference Frames in a Retrospective of 20-th Century Findings and Illusions.’
Please, read the paper, and we can continue this interesting discussion.
2nd Feb, 2017
Allan Zade
I have one more question to RAM NARESH YADAV.
Dear RAM NARESH, does your theory use aspects of one-way experiments mentioned above with the idea of the absence of the physical Time in the universe?
If not, I’m afraid it becomes obsolete before publication. As you remember, a theory should cover experiments as more as possible. Therefore, if you used a Relativistic point of view, it can be destroyed by one-way experiments as well as any other theory that depends on Relativity.
For the same reason, I offer the soonest experiments with SMA to avoid wasting of sources for a wrong way of science.
2nd Feb, 2017
Allan Zade
Daniel Baldomir: “Time is not only a concept, but something measurable.”
AZ: I guess you never read my paper ‘Human’s delusion of Time.’ You can see all answers on your questions there.
You can download the paper from my profile. Please tell us your counterarguments to the paper if you have any of them.
2nd Feb, 2017
Daniel Baldomir
University of Santiago de Compostela
Dear Allan,
Do you know what is the proper time of one observer? Do you know that we are speaking about inertial observers and therefore that you can parametrizate your curves in function of such time?
2nd Feb, 2017
André Michaud
Service de Recherche Pédagogique (SRP Inc)
Hi Allan,
I tried to locate your article at the globaljournal.org link you gave, but could not locate the GJCFR-A Volume 16 Issue 6 issue to read your paper.
Would you have a more direct link?
You did not specify the result of the experiment.
Is it that the result shows that the speed of light is shown not to be constant in vacuum?
If so, does your paper offer an explanation of which other constant (either eps_0 or Mu_0) varies accordingly, and why they remain constant in all other circumstances?
2nd Feb, 2017
Abdul Malek
Technologie DMI, Montréal , Canada
@ Daniel Baldomir
Dear Daniel,
Unstable subatomic particles are produced from nuclear disintegration or a collision reaction by cosmic rays for example and these usually move at uncontrollable high speed; so you can measure their decay time from detectors like cloud chamber, for example. In your case, can you have two neutrons under identical situation but can manipulate their speed to be very different to measure a difference in their decay time? My guess is that you assume that SR equation is right and then back-calculate the decay time of neutron at zero velocity to show the effect of time dilation!
The only reported case of such experimental measurement is muon life time at different speeds at CERN. But there are too many uncertainties both in the measurement of time as well as the speed of the muons. As is usually the case with such subjective experiments; confirmation bias usually favours the theory. Also, the accuracy claimed was 0.9 ± 0.4 parts per thousand; much less than 5-sigma, to be credible.
2 Recommendations
2nd Feb, 2017
Louis Brassard
Christian,
Nothing exist in itself except for those believing in the real existence of a mathematical world and I am not one of them.
‘’ Energy is like money, a convenient universal conversion among all kind of physical concepts for doing work but like money it does not exist in itself. ‘’
If there were no exchange of products and services in a society, a society where every little family group is totally autonomous and does not need anything from other then money cannot exist in such society. It can become a reality only in social contexts were societies exchange with other societies and where these societies are made of groups with specific functions exchanging with our groups. So the concept and reality of money depend on the existence of such contexts and is thus less fundamental than the contextual realities from which it can emerged.
I do not want to get deep into money but there is also another parallel with energy. Holding money allow an individual living in a society with certain money conventions, to get other people work for the purposes set by this individual. It is a repository of social work, a role similar to the concept of energy in physics where it is defined a capacity to do work. The principle of conservation of Energy alleges that it cannot be destroyed thus providing to the concept a more fundamental existence transcending its embodiement. As if it has an existence in itself. The principle of conservation of energy is mathematically equivalent to the principle of invariance of the laws of nature with respect to time. The concept of time in physics is based on this and is antithesis to the evolution of the laws of physics and so assumed that these exist in a platonic timeless world. So the time of physics is opposed to many kind of changes.
2 Recommendations
2nd Feb, 2017
Daniel Baldomir
University of Santiago de Compostela
Dear Louis,
Sorry but you are speaking of something that you don't know at all:
1. You said:
The principle of conservation of energy is mathematically equivalent to the principle of invariance of the laws of nature with respect to time
a- This is not a principle but a law.
b- The laws of nature don´t need to be invariant for the conservation of the energy. What needs to be invariant under infinitesimal translations is the action of the physical system.
c- There are laws of nature that are not invariant in time or inversion of time operator as, for instance, the chiral currents.
2. You wrote:
The concept of time in physics is based on this and is antithesis to the evolution of the laws of physics and so assumed that these exist in a platonic timeless world
a-Nobody knows, perhaps with your exception, what is the evolution of the laws in Physics. What do you mean by that? I similar to the evolution of the species in biology?
b- I don't know why you think that is necessary to have the evolution of the laws in Physics and less to compare this with the behaviour of the entropy in the living things.
2nd Feb, 2017
Daniel Baldomir
University of Santiago de Compostela
Dear Abdul,
If the neutron decay is not enough accurate for you to measure the time, perhaps it would be better to take the spectra of the cesium-133 atom to make a very exact measurement of the unit of time. That so physical as can be the measurement of a kg, K, m or so on. There are no mistery in this physical object although, perhaps, we would like to dominate for avoiding the death or living always in the youth.
2nd Feb, 2017
Allan Zade
Dear fellows,
I can show the shortest way to find my recent article for everyone who has any problem to download it. Please use the link mentioned below. It sends you to the library page of the journal.
Please use any parameter of my article you like in the Quick Search string (left-upper corner of the page). It can be my last name (Zade) or part of article name (Physics and Philosophy). Push ‘Go’ button.
You can see my article ‘Physics and Philosophy of Wave Reference Frames in a Retrospective of 20-th Century Findings and Illusions’ in the search result and the direct link to the article. That link is ever correct because the journal supports it. The link leads directly to my article (pdf-file).
Have fun!
https://globaljournals.org/papers/index.html
2nd Feb, 2017
Allan Zade
Hi André,
André Michaud: “Would you have a more direct link?”
AZ: You can see the shortest way to download my article in my previous answer just above this one.
André Michaud: “You did not specify the result of the experiment.”
AZ: That is precisely correct. To obtain the result, we need to conduct the experiment. However, all other physical experiments like De Witte findings and Norbert Feist experiments with famous CERN “faster than light neutrino experiment” show the same problem of Relativity that cannot be solved in the theoretical framework of relativity. SMA becomes a universal measurement device that answers all those questions by physical measurements.
André Michaud: “Is it that the result shows that the speed of light is shown not to be constant in vacuum?"
AZ: Physical experiments mentioned in my article show this. The speed of light in any medium depends on physical parameters of the medium that affects the speed of light under a given circumstances. Therefore, physical parameters of medium like water give us the speed of light in water. Different parameters give us a different speed of light in that particular medium. For example, free space (vacuum) has a given and well-known parameters, and it gives us the speed of light in space.
However, the Trident experiment that we can conduct in any lab shows the same observer-to-medium motion by light signals regardless any medium. That supports the idea that light ever uses space as the medium for its physical propagation. The presence of other things changes critical physical parameters of free space and light changes its speed in that areas affected by those parameters. As soon as light leaves that area it restores its speed because it comes back to physical parameters of free space (vacuum).
All those aspects we can see in the Trident Experiment. Michelson has not ever any imagination about the physical possibility of such experiment.
André Michaud: “If so, does your paper offer an explanation of which other constant (either eps_0 or Mu_0) varies accordingly, and why they remain constant in all other circumstances?”
AZ: Yes, my explanation given above answers that question. The speed of light depends on physical parameters of space that can be affected by other things. As a result, light changes its speed. Moreover, light has a given speed under given circumstances relative to vacuum. In other words, the speed of light depends on physical parameters of a given medium, not vice versa.
SMA shows that in two one-way experiment. The duration of both experiments depends on observer-to-space relative motion and orientation of both SMAs. However, the full duration of a round-trip experiment shows the same value ever. That effect caused a huge mistake of Michelson in the interpretation of data coming from his device because a device with a mirror uses only a round-trip experiments without any chance to conduct a one-way experiment. That illusion persists in physics for a century.
Einstein himself cannot avoid that problem and proposed his famous postulate about equal duration of light going in forward direction from the point A to the point B and in backward direction. However, that postulate is wrong and was wrong at the moment of its appearance in the Einstein’s mind.
Have you any more questions regarding that subject? I guess you can see detailed answers on them in my article.
1 Recommendation
2nd Feb, 2017
Allan Zade
Dear Daniel,
Daniel Baldomir: Do you know what the proper time of one observer is? Do you know that we are speaking about inertial observers and therefore that you can parametrizate your curves in function of such time?
AZ: I know you point of view on that subject. You use the theoretical framework of relativity to express your mind. I’m talking about something else about many experiments which cannot be explained in the framework of relativity.
That means a paradigm shift that rebuilds many “fundamental categories” on the human mind. For example, if you discuss the problem of definition of Time we can do it in a separate discussion. But you should give me your definition of so-called Time first of all and read my paper ‘Human’s delusion of Time’. If you have any counterargument against that paper we can go further.
The paradigm shift appears in the form of changes of the human mind from traditional statement that “Physical Time does exist” to another statement “Physical Time Does not exist.”
Einstein used the old paradigm to give explanation of one “unexplainable experiment” (Michelson’s experiment). That experiment based on Michelson’s “calculations” but a physical device destroys all his “calculations” at the first experiment. However, Michelson stood under illusion that his “calculations are correct” and the experiment is wrong in complete disagreement with scientific method that requires physical proves for thoughts.
I propose a different easy explanation of all set of experiments for any signal-medium combination with one easy method of measurements. You should read my papers and show me your counterarguments before we can go further. As a scientist you understand this. The explanation is a product of the human mind.
Moreover, “We are products of our past, but we don't have to be prisoners of it.” (Rick Warren)
1 Recommendation
2nd Feb, 2017
Allan Zade
Dear Daniel,
Daniel Baldomir: “If the neutron decay is not enough accurate for you to measure the time, perhaps it would be better to take the spectra of the cesium-133 atom to make a very exact measurement of the unit of time.”
AZ: Can you tell us the relationship of “the spectra of the cesium-133 atom” and something that you call Time? The spectra of the cesium-133 atom comes from physical processes happen in atoms, not from physical Time.
In other words, you have not any experiment to take a signal from Pure Time. You should make physical interaction with that unit and without any reference to anything else (motion, oscillation, rotation, etc.) to make a very exact measurement of the unit of Time.
Can you tell us you counterarguments against that statement? Please look deep in your mind to find answer on that question.
1 Recommendation
2nd Feb, 2017
Daniel Baldomir
University of Santiago de Compostela
Dear Allan,
I have reading your paper, which seems to be written for a magazine of sunday newspaper. You mixed history-psychology- philosophy (with the methodology of justifying things only with ideas) and very very basic physics.
1. It is trivial to say that the velocity of the light depends of the permittivity and permeability relatives of the material medium. That is in every basic text and it seems to be your conclusion.
2. Light cannot notice any change of time and every reference frame related with it (hypothetically if you have a group of transformations which can generalize or change the Lorentz's one) has the same "time".
3. Do you know the Cherenkov effect? This is well tested and you can prove with it that nothing’s faster than c, the speed of light … in a vacuum. In the air or water (or glass), the speed of light is slower than c. So what happens when something like a cosmic ray proton – which is moving way faster than the speed of light in air or water – hits the Earth’s atmosphere? It emits a cone of light, like the sonic boom of a supersonic plane; that light is Cherenkov radiation.
The Cherenkov radiation spectrum is continuous, and its intensity increases with frequency (up to a cutoff); that’s what gives it the eerie blue color you see in pictures of ‘swimming pool’ reactors.
For instance, there are sophisticated centers as Pierre Auger observatory that use the velocity of light in the usual relativistic context without needing your discovery of the new reference frame associated to the electromagnetic waves themselves that you put as the 21st discovered by the new technology.
4- Although to change of century implies progress in knowledge as history proves, Einstein is not a XIXth man who was thinking in the ether of Maxwell. He was living till the middle of the XXth century with a very brilliant mind and thinking very clearly. The argument that he could think in your systems of reference because he was a man of the 19th century is only valid (perhaps) for newspapers but not for a serious scientific review.
2nd Feb, 2017
Sergey Shevchenko
Institute of Physics of the National Academy of Science of Ukraine
Dear Alan,
“…the paradigm shift appears in the form of changes of the human mind from traditional statement that “Physical Time does exist” to another statement “Physical Time Does not exist…”
and, for example [in other your post],
“…SMA shows that in two one-way experiment. The duration of both experiments depends on observer-to-space relative motion and orientation of both SMAs…”
- if Physical Time does not exist, then what is “duration”?
“…In other words, you have not any experiment to take a signal from Pure Time. ..”
the notion/phenomenon [the Rule/Possibility] “Time” in some features is similar to the notion/phenomenon “Space”. For example – as the Rules both establish that between different objects must be non-zero spatial interval [a distance]; and between different states of some changing object must be non-zero temporal interval [a duration]; both, distances and durations, exist quite really and objectively. And measured these intervals are just signals from Pure Time and Pure Space. If you claim that the physical time doesn’t exist, then possibly you claim that physical space doesn’t exist also?
Though, again, before writing about something, here about the notion/phenomenon “Time”, it is necessary before to define “What is this something [here what is Time]” and only further to write about some properties of the something, here – about the properties of Time. In other cases posts become be some senseless texts…
Cheers
2nd Feb, 2017
Allan Zade
Dear Daniel,
You gave not me your answer about Time. That is also “very basic physics.”
In reality, every researcher should explain physical interaction of his measurement device and values which it measures. You cannot take a physical device with the unknown way of measurements as a “measurements device.”
In case of a paradigm shift, everyone sees a lot of “unusual” ideas. As a result, scientific revolution started with burning people on the stakes. Those people proposed new ideas with strong contradiction to long-lasting believe system.
If you like to “worship” Einstein, you can do it without any problem. However, you cannot offer explanations of experiments mentioned in my paper like De Witte findings, Aurora Effect, and others. Even Aurora Effect denies any possibility to make “synchronous operation” of two “clocks.” Other experiments make the situation even worse.
The start point of any discussing or explanation should be set BEFORE categories put under question. Therefore, if we’d like to discuss a problem of reference frames we should go far back to the point where no reference frame exist.
Moreover, all mathematics of modern physics rests on the one postulate of Einstein that light spends the same duration in forward and backward propagation between two points. As soon as that postulate becomes wrong under evidence of physical experiments any “calculations” become subsequently wrong.
As you remember, any postulate-based theory exists only in case of full set of postulates and becomes wrong (falsified) as soon as any of them becomes wrong by any experiment.
For example, Norbert Feist showed in his experiment this. The acoustic Michelson-Morley experiment shows the same so-called null result as well as all optical tests. That result contradicts Michelson’s “calculations” as well as all further speculations based on them.
If you like to address any scientist as a genius, you can do it without any problem. However, it is only your opinion without any reference to science. Obviously, it is hard to believe that the entire physics of 20-th century based on one experiment and one postulate. However, that is true, and you share that background as long as you use the old paradigm.
2nd Feb, 2017
André Michaud
Service de Recherche Pédagogique (SRP Inc)
Dear Allan,
Thank you for the link. I read your article.
With respect to your conclusion about the speed of light, you summarize it rather cleanly in your last message to me:
"The speed of light in any medium depends on physical parameters of the medium that affects the speed of light under a given circumstances."
I totally agree with this.
It effectively depends on permeability and permittivity, both parameters having different values in different media. For vacuum they happen to be confirmed as being constant at eps_0 and mu_0. This is what establishes the speed of light as being constant in vacuum. Tenuous media such as the Earth asmosphere are not dense enough to cause it to measurably vary from c..
In salt water, speed of EM radiation has been shown to be different from pure water and from vacuum. Proven long ago.
In fact, this has long been established. This is conform to experimentally confirmed physical reality, as far as I know.
However, I fail to see what more your experiment could bring by proving what is already well established. Or am I missing the point?
2nd Feb, 2017
Daniel Baldomir
University of Santiago de Compostela
I cannot understand what is difficult to understand with this question. This belongs to the first lectures of electromagnetism. The electromagnetic waves are formed by electric and magnetic field orthogonal each other, which moves obviously changing the position and therfore transform one in the other thanks Maxwell equations. The density of momentum is the Poynting vector
P= εμ E^H
where ε= electric permitivity,μ=magnetic permeability, E=electric field and H=magnetic field.
While the density of energy is given by
ξ = ½ ε E2+ ½ μ H2
And
curl E + time derivative (μH) =0
curl H= time derivative (εE)=0
In the case that we are in vacuum we have that the permitivity and the permability are just numbers and constants and therefore both physical magnitudes are conserved. In the case of a material they are tensors which have losses, in fact this means that the photons excite states in the atoms of the different materials and waste energy and momentum. But in vacuum the level of energy is so low that they cannot do it and if you increase it in such a form that you can excite the Dirac vacuum then the losses could be very important because the photons could excite pairs of particle-antiparticle.
What is the problem? This physics is very simple and it is not necessary at all to speak about ether or other strange things.
1 Recommendation
2nd Feb, 2017
Abdul Malek
Technologie DMI, Montréal , Canada
Dear Daniel,
I agree with your view that the virtual particles of the Dirac (quantum) vacuum mediate the propagation of electromagnetic radiation. Please see my article, “Real/Virtual Exchange of Quantum Particles as a Basis of the Resolution of wave/Particle Duality…”: http://www.ptep-online.com/index_files/2014/PP-39-03.PDF
2nd Feb, 2017
Daniel Baldomir
University of Santiago de Compostela
Dear Christian,
You are right. The Dirac vacuum only enters if you have gamma or more higher photons which are able to excite pairs of particle-antiparticle. Obviously this belongs to a kind of material having dipolar distribution of charge (permitivity) and magnetic dipolar distribution (spins). This belongs to the quantum field theory and it is not at necessary in the light with are waves of very low energy.
For propagation of light in vacuum only is necessary to have electromagnetic waves with local conservation of energy
div P + time derivative ξ =0
2nd Feb, 2017
André Michaud
Service de Recherche Pédagogique (SRP Inc)
Dear Ram
I think that Christian is misleading you here when he asserts that " There is no inherent physical meaning of values of the "physical constants" eps_0 and mu_0 other than to be conversion factors that originate from the arbitrary historical choice of units. A different choice of units gives different values."
These two constants are not arbitrary as he asserts and are definitely not arbitrary conversions factors depending on the choice of units.
They were both experimentally established from real experiments.
You will find a brief historical recap of how they were defined at the beginning of the following paper:
http://ijerd.com/paper/vol7-issue4/G0704032039.pdf
1 Recommendation
2nd Feb, 2017
Rommel Nana Dutchou
Daniel Baldomir:
-------------------------
I cannot understand what is difficult to understand with this question. This belongs to the first lectures of electromagnetism. The electromagnetic waves are formed by electric and magnetic field orthogonal each other, which moves obviously changing the position and therfore transform one in the other thanks Maxwell equations. The density of momentum is the Poynting vector
P= εμ E^H
where ε= electric permitivity,μ=magnetic permeability, E=electric field and H=magnetic field.
While the density of energy is given by
ξ = ½ ε E2+ ½ μ H2
And
curl E + time derivative (μH) =0
curl H= time derivative (εE)=0
In the case that we are in vacuum we have that the permitivity and the permability are just numbers and constants and therefore both physical magnitudes are conserved. In the case of a material they are tensors which have losses, in fact this means that the photons excite states in the atoms of the different materials and waste energy and momentum. But in vacuum the level of energy is so low that they cannot do it and if you increase it in such a form that you can excite the Dirac vacuum then the losses could be very important because the photons could excite pairs of particle-antiparticle.
What is the problem? This physics is very simple and it is not necessary at all to speak about ether or other strange things.
-------------------------
I have always had an understanding problem with the interpretation of the electromagnetic energy density and the Poynting vector. Indeed, the experimental law of Biot-Savart implies that these quantities can be calculated for an isolated electric charge that has a rectilinear and uniform motion in a Galilean referential. It is the expression *density of energy* that becomes difficult to understand.
I also found that I am not the only one: https://www.researchgate.net/post/What_is_the_significance_of_the_Poynting_vector_in_a_static_electromagnetic_field?_tpcectx=profile_highlights
The argument of the surface integral is not fully satisfactory because the notion of energy should have local peculiarities.
2nd Feb, 2017
Daniel Baldomir
University of Santiago de Compostela
Dear Rommel,
When I said that these things were easy to understand is because I am assuming that we are physicists and we have passed one course of electromagnetism ,at least.
What was discussed in the forum that you put the link was if static and stationary field could create a momentum. This is much more subtle question because in principle you have one electric field E that you can combine with one external magnetic field B. For instance you have a condenser with constante electric field E and you apply on it a magnet with one magnetic field B and then you have to have one Poynting vector different than zero (if you use only mathematics). This is against the conservation of the energy and momentum and Feynman has a beautiful problem about it.
One very simple form to see it is that the fields are proportional to inverse of the square of the distance 1/r2 and thus its product is proportional to 1/r4 which is zero if you introduce them in the closed surface (proportional always to r2 ) integral associated to the linear momentum. Thus there are local conservation of linear momentum and also energy for the electromagnetic field (by the way, Biot-Savart law only is necessary to calculate magnetic fields knowing the electric currents).
2nd Feb, 2017
André Michaud
Service de Recherche Pédagogique (SRP Inc)
Hi Daniel and Rommel.
The Poynting vector refers to the "intensity" of EM energy. Ref: Resnick & Halliday (1967) Physics p. 989.
S= EB/(2 mu_0) (joules per second per square meter), that is intensity of EM flow across a surface. To be related to the integral.
The density is given by U=B2/(2 mu_0) or U=(eps_0 E2)/2 (joules per cubic meter), that is, density of EM energy within a volume, to be related to the derivative.
Also, a static field can create momentum. Just look up the Einstein-de Haas effect.
Rommel, if you are interested in how the Biot-Savart law can help calculate these quantities for an isolated electric charge (an electron) that has a rectilinear and uniform motion in a Galilean referential, maybe the following will be of interest to you:
Article Field Equations for Localized Photons and Relativistic Field...
2nd Feb, 2017
Daniel Baldomir
University of Santiago de Compostela
Dear André,
Ou dear! Einstein-de Haas effect is only the conservation of the angular momentum associated to the spins. In particular what is used a ferromagnetic material following in a strong magnetic field for seeing how the angular momentum can change.
Nothing to do with linear momentum associated to the Poynting vector!
And your formulae are only a special kind of electromagnetic wave in vaccum and I have written the expressions for any material.
2nd Feb, 2017
Daniel Baldomir
University of Santiago de Compostela
Dear André,
Being more specific, the paper is:
A. Einstein, W. J. de Haas, Experimenteller Nachweis der Ampereschen Molekularströme, Deutsche Physikalische Gesellschaft, Verhandlungen 17 (1915): 152-170.
The translation to english of the title:
Experimental Proof of Ampère's Molecular Currents
tells you that they were considering Ampère's hypothesis that magnetism is caused by the microscopic circular motions of electric charges (without using the spin of quantum mechanics introduced by Pauli), the authors proposed a design to test Lorentz's theory that the rotating particles are electrons. The aim of the experiment was to measure the torque generated by a reversal of the magnetisation of an iron cylinder.
Obviously they failed, but the idea was good and nowadays (with this name) is solved using QED and spins of Dirac.
2nd Feb, 2017
André Michaud
Service de Recherche Pédagogique (SRP Inc)
Daniel,
Seems to me that a static field can create momentum irrespective of what they were trying to measure. The cylinder rotates, no?
This doesn't look like failure to me.
2nd Feb, 2017
Daniel Baldomir
University of Santiago de Compostela
No. It is necessary a motion of the magnetic body within the magnetic field.
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