Hello there!

I need help with this interpretation and would like to ensure I am speaking of this correctly.

I am looking at odds a student is successful in a course.

The study variable of interest is ZTC.

Without controlling for other covariates, this is what I have:

Intercept - OR 3.028 and pvalue .000

ZTC, OR 1.429 pvalue .000

black OR .501 pvalue .000

hispanic OR .561 pvalue .000

other OR .894 NS

black*ztc .663 pvalue .024

hisp*ztc OR 1.082 NS

other*ztc OR .909 NS

There are no other covariates in this model. White is the reference group.

This is how I interpret this:

Students who take courses that are ZTC are 1.43 times more likely to be successful than students who take non-ZTC courses. Students who are black and take non-ZTC courses are 49% less likely than white students to be successful in their course, whereas students who are black and take ZTC courses are only 34% less likely than white students to be successful in comparable courses. This is an improvement of 15 percentage points. In other words, ZTC decreases the amount of advantage whites have over blacks, but it does not eliminate the disproportionate impact on black students success rates.

This is a bit confusing as the crude success rates between ZTC and non-ZTC for blacks is actually 59.0% and 60.3% with NS on chisquare pvalue. Please don't miss this.

Just to ensure that I can interpret this right, IF the pvalue was significant on hispanic*ztc with OR of 1.082.

ZTC increases the odds that Hispanics are successful in their course by 8%.

So I know there is someone out there who can help me understand and translate what this means in real numbers. What on earth is an 8% increase in the odds that something happens? I mean I can write that but what does that really look like?! I was thinking if odds were 4:1 or OR 4.0 then an 8% increase would be .32 so the OR would be 4.32. Or if the OR was 1.35 an 8% increase in the odds would be a OR of 1.458.