The topic considered here is the Klein-Gordon equation governing some scalar field amplitude, with the field amplitude defined by the property of being a solution of this equation. The original Klein-Gordan equation does not contain any gauge potentials, but a modified version of the equation (also called the Klein-Gordon equation in some books for reasons that I do not understand) does contain a gauge potential. This gauge potential is often represented in the literature by the symbol Ai (a four-component vector). Textbooks show that if a suitable transformation is applied to the field amplitude to produce a transformed field amplitude, and another suitable transformation is applied to the gauge potential to produce a transformed gauge potential, the Lagrangian is the same function of the transformed quantities as it is of the original quantities. With these transformations collectively called a gauge transformation we say that the Lagrangian is invariant under a gauge transformation. This statement has the appearance of being justification for the use of Noether’s theorem to derive a conservation law. However, it seems to me that this appearance is an illusion. If the field amplitude and gauge potential are both transformed, then they are both treated the same way as each other in Noether’s theorem. In particular, the theorem requires both to be solutions of their respective Lagrange equations. The Lagrange equation for the field amplitude is the Klein-Gordon equation (the version that includes the gauge potential). The textbook that I am studying does not discuss this but I worked out the Lagrange equations for the gauge potential and determined that the solution is not in general zero (zero is needed to make the Klein-Gordon equation with gauge potential reduce to the original equation). The field amplitude is required in textbooks to be a solution to its Lagrange equation (the Klein-Gordon equation). However, the textbook that I am studying has not explained to me that the gauge potential is required to be a solution of its Lagrange equations. If this requirement is not imposed, I don’t see how any conclusions can be reached via Noether’s theorem. Is there a way to justify the use of Noether’s theorem without requiring the gauge potential to satisfy its Lagrange equation? Or, is the gauge potential required to satisfy that equation without my textbook telling me about that?

Similar questions and discussions